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FW: Use of Comparative in 3John 4

>At 5:21AM, Carl W. Conrad wrote: 
>
><<
>Shakespeare has, among other double comparatives, "This was the most
>unkindest cut of all." While held in contempt by prescriptive grammarians,
>I think it is a not uncommon colloquialism in several languages; Greek is
>not an exception--and I think there are others in the NT, pehaps also in
>the LXX.
>>>
>
>Well, I'd call that a "double superlative" rather than a "double
>comparitive", but since from what I read the superlative had virtually
>disappeared from Koine and the comparitive forms were making do for both, I
>guess the distinction isn't material in this forum!  ;-) 
>
>My main question here is:  What should I presume the author of 3 John was
>trying to convey by his use of the reduplicated comparitive sense?  Why would
>he use MEIZOTEROS instead of MEIZWN in this context, and what conclusions
>about his semantic intent can we draw from that usage?  For example, given
>the virtual disappearance of the superlative form from Koine, could/should we
>assume that the author was trying to convey the superlative by the
>reduplication of the comparitive sense? 
>
>IOW, in what senses is MEIZOTEROS *NOT* a synonym for MEIZWN?  
>
>    -Chuck Stevens [SMTP:  Charles.Stevens@unisys.com]
>