One might infer there is an implication in Paul's use of the word
AGAMOS of having been married but presently being in an unmarried state.
The citations above from 1Cor. 7 suggest it. Also, the first of the
citations s.v. AGAMOS in Moulton and Milligan appears to express this
scenario: EF' hON XRONON AGAM[OS ES]TIN (from a 2nd-Century AD papyrus).
When I checked out the references for AGAMOS at Perseus, however,
the meaning of the word was invariably "never married" - in some authors,
very explicitly so. Even Plutarch, from the Koine period, used AGAMOS in
this way.
Is it possible that Paul used the word in a different sense than the
classical authors, or might there be a specific Koine meaning of AGAMOS that
we don't find in Plutarch because of classical literary influence?
David L. Moore
Miami, Florida, USA
Southeastern Spanish District of the A/G Dept. of Education
E-mail: dvdmoore@ix.netcom.com
Home Page: http://members.aol.com/dvdmoore