1 Tim 3:10 -- why the present tense

James H. Vellenga (jhv0@mailhost.viewlogic.com)
Thu, 6 Nov 1997 15:34:51 -0500 (EST)

In discussing the qualifications of deacons, the author
of 1 Timothy says in 1 Tim 3:10

KAI hOUTOI DE DOKIMAZESQWSAN PRWTON, EITA DIAKONEITWSAN
ANEGKLHTOI ONTES
yet these too must first be tested-and-approved, then serve [as]
being irreproachable.

My question is, why does the author use present tense for
these imperatives? One would think that with "PRWTON, EITA"
at least the first of the imperatives would have "an end
point in view," as Rolf puts it, and hence naturally gravitate
toward the aorist.

Regards,
Jim Vellenga