No. Such a translation would require an imperfect, aorist ingressive, or
even present tense verb. The verb here is, as you know, a perfect. When
the author of 1 John uses the perfect tense he seems to always signify a
past action with a present result.
>Best,
>
To you as well.
>Ted
Jim
(neo-positivist at large)
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Quartz Hill School of Theology
jwest@highland.net