It occurs 51 times in the entire GNT, only in the gospels and Acts, but 11
times in the first chapter of Mark alone. At least some of these times, it
seems to mean just "then", not "immediately". (BAGD lists Mark 1:21, 23, 29
as examples). I think that it is largely the combination of historical
present and EUQUS that makes Mark feel so breathless!
I'm sure somebody has written stuff on the use of EUQUS in Mark. Can
anybody fill me in? I'd be especially interested in stuff coming from a
discourse analysis viewpoint, but I'd be interested in anything else I
could find, too.
Jonathan
___________________________________________________________________________
Jonathan Robie jwrobie@mindspring.com
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