Search found 47 matches
- November 12th, 2013, 5:00 pm
- Forum: Galatians 1
- Topic: Galatians 1:1-5
- Replies: 22
- Views: 35904
Re: Galatians 1:1-5
Question: why did Paul say ὅπως ἐξέληται ἡμᾶς? Instead of using the more common ἱνα he uses ὅπως. And instead of using σῴζω, ῥύομαι, ἐλευθεροώ, or (ἐξ)αγοράζω he uses the rarer ἐξαιρέομαι? There are some suggestions in the literature that Paul is alluding / adapting a traditional formulation. Which...
- November 12th, 2013, 4:20 pm
- Forum: Galatians 1
- Topic: Galatians 1:1-5
- Replies: 22
- Views: 35904
Re: Galatians 1:1-5
Question: why did Paul say ὅπως ἐξέληται ἡμᾶς? Instead of using the more common ἱνα he uses ὅπως. And instead of using σῴζω, ῥύομαι, ἐλευθεροώ, or (ἐξ)αγοράζω he uses the rarer ἐξαιρέομαι?
- November 7th, 2013, 2:04 am
- Forum: Word Meanings
- Topic: Antonym(s) for γνήσιος?
- Replies: 2
- Views: 1586
Re: Antonym(s) for γνήσιος?
Does anybody have a thought as to what the opposite(s) of γνήσιος would be as it is used in 2 Corinthians 8:8 and Philipians 4:3? The first verse is; Οὐ κατ’ ἐπιταγὴν λέγω, ἀλλὰ διὰ τῆς ἑτέρων σπουδῆς καὶ τὸ τῆς ὑμετέρας ἀγάπης γνήσιον δοκιμάζων. The sense of this verse is difficult, I feel. If it ...
- November 5th, 2013, 5:07 pm
- Forum: Syntax and Grammar
- Topic: ὁ βασιλεὺς Ἰσραήλ: objective or subjective genitive?
- Replies: 64
- Views: 17163
Re: ὁ βασιλεὺς Ἰσραήλ: objective or subjective genitive?
I have been reading the New Testament in Greek for a few years, slowly, in very small quantities (often just 2 or 3 verses), ... So I suppose I might be looking for something that would begin to bridge the gap, not too hard in style, and fairly limited in vocabulary. How about Josephus for example?...
- November 5th, 2013, 1:39 am
- Forum: Syntax and Grammar
- Topic: ὁ βασιλεὺς Ἰσραήλ: objective or subjective genitive?
- Replies: 64
- Views: 17163
Re: ὁ βασιλεὺς Ἰσραήλ: objective or subjective genitive?
Wallace doesn't tell you anything about what the Greek construction "in and of itself" means. The "in and of itself" is not such an easy thing to deal with, I find. Let's look at a few in-and-of-itself thoughts for this well known verse: Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον, ὥστ...
- November 4th, 2013, 11:03 pm
- Forum: Syntax and Grammar
- Topic: ὁ βασιλεὺς Ἰσραήλ: objective or subjective genitive?
- Replies: 64
- Views: 17163
Re: ὁ βασιλεὺς Ἰσραήλ: objective or subjective genitive?
Wallace is a different animal. What makes it different from Robertson, Smyth, etc. is that teaches the student to make a half-conjectural translation, and then to (at least implicitly) reason back from English to the Greek. The student never leaves the grid of thinking in English and translating. J...
- November 2nd, 2013, 3:13 pm
- Forum: Syntax and Grammar
- Topic: ὁ βασιλεὺς Ἰσραήλ: objective or subjective genitive?
- Replies: 64
- Views: 17163
Re: ὁ βασιλεὺς Ἰσραήλ: objective or subjective genitive?
One perhaps less important reason is that this system is used not only by Wallace, but by a whole tradition of grammarians, both classical and New Testament. I would like to understand the system fully, before I consider whether to keep, discard or modify it. If several generations have found it us...
- November 1st, 2013, 8:17 pm
- Forum: Syntax and Grammar
- Topic: ὁ βασιλεὺς Ἰσραήλ: objective or subjective genitive?
- Replies: 64
- Views: 17163
Re: ὁ βασιλεὺς Ἰσραήλ: objective or subjective genitive?
I agree with Carl.
- October 30th, 2013, 5:09 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Colossians 1:11 κατὰ τὸ κράτος τῆς δόξης αὐτοῦ
- Replies: 15
- Views: 5970
Re: Colossians 1:11 κατὰ τὸ κράτος τῆς δόξης αὐτοῦ
I came across this passage in Zerwick's 'Biblical Greek': This book [Deissmann's Union with Christ in St Paul in the Light of his Use of the Genitives'] shows how the grammarians' classification of the uses of the genitive, useful as it may be, is inadequate and may become misleading. The author in...
- May 26th, 2013, 12:18 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: 2 Cor 1:9 ἐν ἑαυτοῖς ... ἐσχήκαμεν
- Replies: 16
- Views: 4528
Re: 2 Cor 1:9 ἐν ἑαυτοῖς ... ἐσχήκαμεν
FWIW here's Murray Harris' take: It is certainly possible to follow Moulton who (very tentatively) regards ἐσχήκαμεν here, as well as ἔσχηκα in 2:13 and ἔσχηκεν in 7:5, as aoristic perfects, such usage being perhaps a mannerism or idiosyncrasy that Paul dropped before writing (… Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ), διʼ ...