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by Bobby Garringer
April 19th, 2013, 9:57 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Translation in Romans 1:4
Replies: 37
Views: 10663

Re: Translation in Romans 1:4

Thanks for all the in-put on this matter. Early on, Dr. Carlson indicated that ambiguity is the nature of successive prepositional phrases. With the variety of different ways of understanding Romans 1:3-4 (from Orr, BDAG, and the NET Bible to the suggestions given in this thread), I think he's right...
by Bobby Garringer
April 19th, 2013, 12:16 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Translation in Romans 1:4
Replies: 37
Views: 10663

Re: Translation in Romans 1:4

(If ἐν δυνάμει was sequenced immediately after τοῦ ὁρισθέντος, there would be no doubt that the former modifies the latter as an adverb. But it is not, therefore, some feel justified in relating it to υἱοῦ θεοῦ which stands just before it. Notice, I only indicate that one arrangement would make an ...
by Bobby Garringer
April 19th, 2013, 12:00 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Translation in Romans 1:4
Replies: 37
Views: 10663

Re: Translation in Romans 1:4

When BDAG notes that the uses of ἐν in prepositional phrases are many and easily confused, how can you assert that ἐν δυνάμει should be taken "in the plain sense of it?" If such prepositional phrases have a variety of meanings that can be confusing, there is not a "plain sense" i...
by Bobby Garringer
April 18th, 2013, 11:20 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Translation in Romans 1:4
Replies: 37
Views: 10663

Re: Translation in Romans 1:4

There is not -- necessarily -- a difference between τοῦ ὁρισθέντος υἱοῦ θεοῦ ἐν δυνάμει and τοῦ ὁρισθέντος ἐν δυνάμει υἱοῦ θεοῦ, except that the latter would definitely indicate that ἐν δυνάμει is adverbial. It might still be in the former case as well, but it might also act as an adjective for υἱοῦ...
by Bobby Garringer
April 18th, 2013, 3:56 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Translation in Romans 1:4
Replies: 37
Views: 10663

Re: Translation in Romans 1:4

Jonathan: You state, "there's very strong parallelism here." But you see a problem for my reading of the passage, because "ἐν δυνάμει is not echoed in the first part of [the parallelism]." But the construction does not so much suggest a parallel as it does a contrast between that...
by Bobby Garringer
April 18th, 2013, 2:35 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Translation in Romans 1:4
Replies: 37
Views: 10663

Re: Translation in Romans 1:4

Thanks, Dr. Carlson, for engaging this issue. I understand why you regard Luke 1:35, in context, as irrelevant to grasping the meaning of Romans 1:4, in context. My response to your statements is this: (1) Paul is also speaking of the Incarnation (In verse three, he speaks of τοῦ υἱοῦ αὐτοῦ τοῦ γενο...
by Bobby Garringer
April 18th, 2013, 6:04 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Translation in Romans 1:4
Replies: 37
Views: 10663

Re: Translation in Romans 1:4

Isn't there an apparent intertextual link between relevant parts of Luke 1 and Romans 1? Within the context of a strong early tradition of the close tie between Paul and the author of Luke-Acts, it seems unavoidable that potential intertextual links -- with interpretive implications -- be considered...
by Bobby Garringer
April 18th, 2013, 3:50 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Translation in Romans 1:4
Replies: 37
Views: 10663

Re: Translation in Romans 1:4

John: To be born (lit. to become, γενομένου) "of the seed of David according to the flesh" (ἐκ σπέρματος Δαυὶδ κατὰ σάρκα) would not be a pronouncement of weakness in verse 3. Instead this would make Jesus the heir of David, who was prophesied to rule forever. (Note the promises made to th...
by Bobby Garringer
April 17th, 2013, 7:21 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Translation in Romans 1:4
Replies: 37
Views: 10663

Re: Translation in Romans 1:4

John:

If I read you correctly, you seem to be rejecting BDAG's understanding of the significance of "power" in this verse.
by Bobby Garringer
April 17th, 2013, 2:29 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Translation in Romans 1:4
Replies: 37
Views: 10663

Re: Translation in Romans 1:4

You ask what I mean by "applying" κατὰ πνεῦμα ἁγιωσύνης to the previous phrase rather than to the phrase that follows. All I mean is that James Orr takes κατὰ πνεῦμα ἁγιωσύνης to be a further explanation of what it means to be "the Son of God with Power" [υἱοῦ θεοῦ ἐν δυνάμει], w...

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