Search found 3 matches
- May 15th, 2013, 4:21 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: The use of ἢ in 1Cor14:36
- Replies: 5
- Views: 2470
The use of ἢ in 1Cor14:36
14:35 εἰ δέ τι μαθεῖν θέλουσιν, ἐν οἴκῳ τοὺς ἰδίους ἄνδρας ἐπερωτάτωσαν, αἰσχρὸν γάρ ἐστιν γυναικὶ λαλεῖν ἐν ἐκκλησίᾳ. 14:36 ἢ ἀφ' ὑμῶν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθεν, ἢ εἰς ὑμᾶς μόνους κατήντησεν I've read in a couple of places the ἢ at the beginning of 1Cor14:36 can be taken to imply that the preceeding...
- June 22nd, 2012, 7:46 pm
- Forum: What does this text mean?
- Topic: 1Pe1:16 - why not imperative?
- Replies: 4
- Views: 2074
Re: 1Pe1:16 - why not imperative?
That's very helpful, thank you.
- June 22nd, 2012, 1:20 pm
- Forum: What does this text mean?
- Topic: 1Pe1:16 - why not imperative?
- Replies: 4
- Views: 2074
1Pe1:16 - why not imperative?
1Pe1:16: διότι γέγραπται [ὅτι] ἅγιοι ἔσεσθε, ὅτι ἐγὼ ἅγιος [εἰμι] for it has been written, holy ye shall be, for I am holy I was wondering why ἔσεσθε is translated with the force of an imperative in many translations: "BE holy, for I am holy". Would it not be as/more accurate to translate ...