Search found 18 matches

by Chris Engelsma
August 3rd, 2011, 3:14 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Complements in Mark 8:36
Replies: 3
Views: 1353

Re: Complements in Mark 8:36

Perfect. Sorry I missed that. I have a follow-up question if I may. Is it accurate to speak of the "subject" of an infinitive? I always preferred the term "agent" of the infinitive to avoid confusing a verbal with a finite verb. ? Then, I am also having difficulty diagramming a s...
by Chris Engelsma
August 3rd, 2011, 2:52 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Complements in Mark 8:36
Replies: 3
Views: 1353

Complements in Mark 8:36

Mark 8:36 τί γὰρ ὠφελεῖ ἄνθρωπον κερδῆσαι τὸν κόσμον ὅλον καὶ ζημιωθῆναι τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ; My question here is more about the proper way to articulate the grammar of this sentence, particularly the complements of ὠφελεῖ. Both ἄνθρωπον and κερδῆσαι τὸν κόσμον ὅλον καὶ ζημιωθῆναι τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ are co...
by Chris Engelsma
August 3rd, 2011, 2:34 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Matt 10:41-42 - εις ονομα
Replies: 6
Views: 1758

Re: Matt 10:41-42 - εις ονομα

My guess is that it is just a general reference. A pointer. The one r/cs the prophet with reference to his office as a prophet.
by Chris Engelsma
August 2nd, 2011, 2:37 pm
Forum: Learning Paradigms
Topic: επιστραφεις
Replies: 6
Views: 11162

Re: επιστραφεις

I am such a dope. I knew that augments only occur in the indicative. Sorry for that.
Thanks for the explanation of στρεφ. I will go over this again in detail.
by Chris Engelsma
August 2nd, 2011, 12:08 pm
Forum: Learning Paradigms
Topic: επιστραφεις
Replies: 6
Views: 11162

επιστραφεις

Sorry for all my morphological questions... :? First, I look up επιστραφεις in Mounce's Morphology book (MBG) and he lists εστρεψα as the aorist principal part. This implies that it is first aorist. Yet, επιστραφεις is clearly second aorist. I guess maybe the addition of the preposition caused this....
by Chris Engelsma
August 1st, 2011, 12:02 pm
Forum: Learning Paradigms
Topic: Why no contraction in ποιεω
Replies: 4
Views: 13154

Why no contraction in ποιεω

The rules for contraction puzzle me. Take ποιεω. The stem is ποιε- Add the connecting vowel to make ποιεο There is no ending in first singular. The omicron lengthens to an omega which gives ποιεω. My question is...why (according to the rules of contraction) doesn't the omega swallow the preceding ep...
by Chris Engelsma
July 25th, 2011, 10:40 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Joh 1,18 - force of the present tense of ὢν
Replies: 12
Views: 4129

Re: Joh 1,18 - force of the present tense of ὢν

I have a feeling that it is easier for us to understand some text when we are actually trying to understand it, in which case I think we would not even have need for theology in order to understand the scriptures, just as the original audience did not have theology to begin with. So I like the fact...
by Chris Engelsma
July 25th, 2011, 9:13 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Joh 1,18 - force of the present tense of ὢν
Replies: 12
Views: 4129

Re: Joh 1,18 - force of the present tense of ὢν

This thread has proven to me how inextricably theology is interwoven with grammar/syntax. I know this forum attempts to limit itself to discussions of grammar and syntax, but this is nearly impossible. The meaning and theology of the text is so bound up with the grammar that they can't be separated....
by Chris Engelsma
July 18th, 2011, 11:38 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 1:8
Replies: 3
Views: 1503

John 1:8

John 1:8 οὐκ ἦν ἐκεῖνος τὸ φῶς... Is there any grammatical reason why ἐκεῖνος is the subject here and not adjectival with φῶς? I know that in predicate nominative situations like this, the pronoun is usually the subject, but......I can't think of any grammatical reason why it can't be "He was t...
by Chris Engelsma
July 14th, 2011, 11:20 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Syntax in Matt 6:21
Replies: 4
Views: 1696

Re: Syntax in Matt 6:21

ὅπου γάρ ἐστιν ὁ θησαυρός σου, ἐκεῖ ἔσται καὶ ἡ καρδία σου. (Matt 6:21) I am looking at ὅπου ... ἐστιν ὁ θησαυρός σου. It is clearly an adverbial clause answering the "where?" question. The standard explanation, I suppose, would be that it is modifying εσται. But on second look.....it alm...

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