Search found 98 matches

by Tony Pope
August 15th, 2017, 3:53 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: τοῦτ᾽ εστιν
Replies: 20
Views: 1903

Re: τοῦτ᾽ εστιν

Okay, then, it seems that in Rom 1.12 it's simply the δέ that signals that an element of correction is coming in the explanatory clause.
by Tony Pope
August 12th, 2017, 1:46 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: τοῦτ᾽ εστιν
Replies: 20
Views: 1903

Re: τοῦτ᾽ εστιν

Do you think there would be a difference in meaning between these two sentences (pretending, for the sake of argument, that the New Testament used both spellings)? τουτέστιν δέ συμπαρακληθῆναι ἐν ὑμῖν διὰ τῆς ἐν ἀλλήλοις πίστεως ὑμῶν τε καὶ ἐμοῦ. τοῦτο δέ ἐστιν συμπαρακληθῆναι ἐν ὑμῖν διὰ τῆς ἐν ἀλ...
by Tony Pope
August 10th, 2017, 5:00 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: τοῦτ᾽ εστιν
Replies: 20
Views: 1903

Re: τοῦτ᾽ εστιν

Note that δέ can divide τοῦτο ἐστιν, so it seems still to be thought of as two words here: τοῦτο δέ ἐστιν συμπαρακληθῆναι ἐν ὑμῖν διὰ τῆς ἐν ἀλλήλοις πίστεως ὑμῶν τε καὶ ἐμοῦ. Lightfoot draws a distinction between τοῦτ᾽ εστιν and τοῦτο δέ ἐστιν: "The difference is important. Τοῦτο δέ ἐστιν is corre...
by Tony Pope
July 31st, 2017, 6:00 am
Forum: Beginners Forum
Topic: Theos in the NT, esp John 1
Replies: 12
Views: 1094

Re: Theos in the NT, esp John 1

If you have the time and energy, I recommend this article: Jan Van der Watt & Chrys Caragounis, «A Grammatical Analysis of John 1,1», Filología Neotestamentaria 21 (2008) 91-138 The discussion of this verse starts on p. 110. Can be read online (but not downloaded) at: https://www.bsw.org/filologia-n...
by Tony Pope
July 13th, 2017, 6:03 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: John's Good Greek
Replies: 10
Views: 886

Re: John's Good Greek

Perhaps this syntactical usage of μαρτυρία in the Apocalpse is at an idiolectic level, while the usage in the Gospel conforms to the broader standard usage. An article that may be helpful is Fred Mazzaferri, ' Marturia Iêsou Revisited.' BT 39.1 1988 114-122 Can be read online at http://www.ubs-tran...
by Tony Pope
April 27th, 2017, 12:06 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: RP2005 ψύχος and / or ψῦχος
Replies: 5
Views: 652

Re: RP2005 ψύχος and / or ψῦχος

How does John 18:18 "ὅτι ψῦχος ἦν" make sense in the Greek then? [BDAG, ψῦχος "cold" (the English noun)] Apparently Greek idiom is different from English in that it uses the noun whereas we would use the adjective. I found the following on the Perseus site: Aristoph. Eccl. 535 ψῦχος γὰρ ἦν, ἐγὼ δὲ ...
by Tony Pope
April 27th, 2017, 6:53 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: RP2005 ψύχος and / or ψῦχος
Replies: 5
Views: 652

Re: RP2005 ψύχος and / or ψῦχος

There is no significance in the different accentuation. This appears to be an accidental inconsistency.

The TR and also Westcott & Hort's edition accent both places as ψύχος, while other 19th century editions, followed by the Nestle editions, use the classical accentuation ψῦχος for both places.
by Tony Pope
February 7th, 2017, 3:44 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Mark 2:15-16 Punctuation - Nestle versus Tischendorf
Replies: 3
Views: 404

Re: Mark 2:15-16 Punctuation - Nestle versus Tischendorf

I would say Lenski's first objection is not well formulated, but is on the right track. The verb ἀκολουθεῖν is certainly used mostly in the gospels in the sense of following a leader and especially of discipleship. Even generally in Greek it seems to me the verb usually implies you are going with so...
by Tony Pope
January 26th, 2017, 5:19 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: Which verb does this phrase modify?
Replies: 3
Views: 296

Re: Which verb does this phrase modify?

This has been discussed before on this forum http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/viewtopic.php?f=6&t=1715&hilit=James+1%3A21+%E1%BC%90%CE%BD+%CF%80%CF%81%CE%B1%CE%B0%CF%84%CE%B7%CF%84%CE%B9 . For the change from NA27 to NA28, and an opinion expressed on the opposite side to the English translations,...
by Tony Pope
December 22nd, 2016, 5:17 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: 1 Cor 7:36 καὶ οὕτως ὀφείλει γίνεσθαι
Replies: 13
Views: 1302

Re: 1 Cor 7:36 καὶ οὕτως ὀφείλει γίνεσθαι

I'm playing with the idea that καὶ οὕτως ὀφείλει γίνεσθαι is actually the apodosis, as if: "If anyone thinks he is behaving inappropriately with his virgin, if at the sexual peak, then it ought to happen this way: let him do what he wants (i.e. go through the marriage), he does not sin, let them ma...