Search found 102 matches

by Tony Pope
December 12th, 2017, 5:37 am
Forum: Word Meanings
Topic: Can ἄνθρωπος in the singular refer to people in general?
Replies: 10
Views: 422

Re: Can ἄνθρωπος in the singular refer to people in general?

Curious that BDAG doesn't provide what Dr Mounce requires.

In addition to Mike's quote from Epictetus, would Luke 18.2, where the judge neither fears God nor cares about human beings, fill the bill?
τὸν θεὸν μὴ φοβούμενος καὶ ἄνθρωπον μὴ ἐντρεπόμενος
by Tony Pope
November 29th, 2017, 5:14 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: κλωμενον in 1Cor. 11:24 is it unPauline?
Replies: 3
Views: 179

Re: κλωμενον in 1Cor. 11:24 is it unPauline?

There are images on the Münster website http://ntvmr.uni-muenster.de/manuscript-workspace but you would need to be registered in order to view Dabs1 (GA 0319). However, you could view the images of F (GA 010) and G (012) without registering. But is there anyway a problem in the syntax of τὸ σῶμα τὸ ...
by Tony Pope
November 21st, 2017, 4:01 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Rev 2:13 ο μαρτυς μου, ο πιστος [μου]?
Replies: 9
Views: 466

Re: Rev 2:13 ο μαρτυς μου, ο πιστος [μου]?

The THGNT is up on the STEP Bible, somewhat hidden and hard to find. It is in ancient bibles menu at bottom under "other" and the apparatus is not currently available. David Instone-Brewer told me the apparatus wasn't supposed to be there but didn't tell me why. The SBLGNT apparatus covers similar ...
by Tony Pope
August 15th, 2017, 3:53 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: τοῦτ᾽ εστιν
Replies: 20
Views: 2066

Re: τοῦτ᾽ εστιν

Okay, then, it seems that in Rom 1.12 it's simply the δέ that signals that an element of correction is coming in the explanatory clause.
by Tony Pope
August 12th, 2017, 1:46 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: τοῦτ᾽ εστιν
Replies: 20
Views: 2066

Re: τοῦτ᾽ εστιν

Do you think there would be a difference in meaning between these two sentences (pretending, for the sake of argument, that the New Testament used both spellings)? τουτέστιν δέ συμπαρακληθῆναι ἐν ὑμῖν διὰ τῆς ἐν ἀλλήλοις πίστεως ὑμῶν τε καὶ ἐμοῦ. τοῦτο δέ ἐστιν συμπαρακληθῆναι ἐν ὑμῖν διὰ τῆς ἐν ἀλ...
by Tony Pope
August 10th, 2017, 5:00 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: τοῦτ᾽ εστιν
Replies: 20
Views: 2066

Re: τοῦτ᾽ εστιν

Note that δέ can divide τοῦτο ἐστιν, so it seems still to be thought of as two words here: τοῦτο δέ ἐστιν συμπαρακληθῆναι ἐν ὑμῖν διὰ τῆς ἐν ἀλλήλοις πίστεως ὑμῶν τε καὶ ἐμοῦ. Lightfoot draws a distinction between τοῦτ᾽ εστιν and τοῦτο δέ ἐστιν: "The difference is important. Τοῦτο δέ ἐστιν is corre...
by Tony Pope
July 31st, 2017, 6:00 am
Forum: Beginners Forum
Topic: Theos in the NT, esp John 1
Replies: 12
Views: 1271

Re: Theos in the NT, esp John 1

If you have the time and energy, I recommend this article: Jan Van der Watt & Chrys Caragounis, «A Grammatical Analysis of John 1,1», Filología Neotestamentaria 21 (2008) 91-138 The discussion of this verse starts on p. 110. Can be read online (but not downloaded) at: https://www.bsw.org/filologia-n...
by Tony Pope
July 13th, 2017, 6:03 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: John's Good Greek
Replies: 10
Views: 1073

Re: John's Good Greek

Perhaps this syntactical usage of μαρτυρία in the Apocalpse is at an idiolectic level, while the usage in the Gospel conforms to the broader standard usage. An article that may be helpful is Fred Mazzaferri, ' Marturia Iêsou Revisited.' BT 39.1 1988 114-122 Can be read online at http://www.ubs-tran...
by Tony Pope
April 27th, 2017, 12:06 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: RP2005 ψύχος and / or ψῦχος
Replies: 5
Views: 743

Re: RP2005 ψύχος and / or ψῦχος

How does John 18:18 "ὅτι ψῦχος ἦν" make sense in the Greek then? [BDAG, ψῦχος "cold" (the English noun)] Apparently Greek idiom is different from English in that it uses the noun whereas we would use the adjective. I found the following on the Perseus site: Aristoph. Eccl. 535 ψῦχος γὰρ ἦν, ἐγὼ δὲ ...