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by Bill Ross
January 17th, 2019, 6:59 pm
Forum: Other
Topic: Why is λόγος consistently translated as "word"?
Replies: 24
Views: 15340

Re: Why is λόγος consistently translated as "word"?

This might explain why the NT usage of the word slants slightly more toward "utterance" than does BDAG; it could be a mild Hebraism. You haven't convinced me that you have a better grasp of this than Danker (of BDAG). I don't really understand the methodology you use for lexicography here. How are ...
by Bill Ross
January 17th, 2019, 3:45 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: In Acts 11:17 what is the nuance if any of the aorist participle?
Replies: 1
Views: 5515

In Acts 11:17 what is the nuance if any of the aorist participle?

Acts 11:17

17 εἰ οὖν τὴν ἴσην δωρεὰν ἔδωκεν αὐτοῖς ὁ θεὸς ὡς καὶ ἡμῖν **πιστεύσασιν** ἐπὶ τὸν κύριον Ἰησοῦν Χριστόν, ⸀ἐγὼ τίς ἤμην δυνατὸς κωλῦσαι τὸν θεόν;

Is it acting sort of like a pluperfect?
by Bill Ross
January 17th, 2019, 12:46 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: The Words Συντελεία and Τέλος in Mt 24
Replies: 12
Views: 10835

Re: The Words Συντελεία and Τέλος in Mt 24

Bill, I think they are essential synonyms, although both the Greek and Latin translations are quite interesting. However: וְהִגְבִּ֥יר בְּרִ֛ית לָרַבִּ֖ים שָׁב֣וּעַ אֶחָ֑ד וַחֲצִ֨י הַשָּׁב֜וּעַ יַשְׁבִּ֣ית׀ זֶ֣בַח וּמִנְחָ֗ה וְעַ֨ל כְּנַ֤ף שִׁקּוּצִים֙ מְשֹׁמֵ֔ם וְעַד־כָּלָה֙ וְנֶ֣חֱרָצָ֔ה תִּתַּ֖ך...
by Bill Ross
January 16th, 2019, 12:58 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: The Words Συντελεία and Τέλος in Mt 24
Replies: 12
Views: 10835

Re: The Words Συντελεία and Τέλος in Mt 24

Consider an English speaker might use two English cognates, "end" and "ending". In the first situation one reaches the extremity and the movie is over. "Okay, let's go because that was the end". But in the other situation one reaches to the finale: "We'll find out who killed Colonel Mustard in the e...
by Bill Ross
January 15th, 2019, 4:25 pm
Forum: Other
Topic: Why is λόγος consistently translated as "word"?
Replies: 24
Views: 15340

Re: Why is λόγος consistently translated as "word"?

It occurred to me today to look at the way "word" is used in the Hebrew text in passages that mention "the word of God" and I was quite impressed with how much it maps to the impression of λόγος. The Outline of Biblical Usage lists this summary: I. speech , word, speaking , thing * speech * saying, ...
by Bill Ross
December 24th, 2018, 12:50 pm
Forum: Other
Topic: Did Paul read Zachariah 14:9 LXX as "all in all"? If so, how?
Replies: 2
Views: 5308

Did Paul read Zachariah 14:9 LXX as "all in all"? If so, how?

I've been searching for the background of 1 Corinthians 15:28 where Paul says: [1Co 15:28 KJV] 28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all . My prime suspect is Zechariah 14:9: Zechari...
by Bill Ross
December 6th, 2018, 6:45 pm
Forum: Other
Topic: What is the difference between εἶτα and ἔπειτα and μετέπειτα?
Replies: 0
Views: 5108

What is the difference between εἶτα and ἔπειτα and μετέπειτα?

A common view of 1 Thessalonians 4:17 is that Paul believed that he would be "caught up together with" the "dead" at the last trumpet. I was struck by the fact that Paul used ἔπειτα for "then" and thought it might have a bearing on whether or not he had a simultaneous event or possibly one that occu...
by Bill Ross
December 6th, 2018, 11:04 am
Forum: Bible Study Software
Topic: What software doesn't do ....
Replies: 10
Views: 15176

Re: What software doesn't do ....

I've had Logos 7 for years but mostly used it to house my BDAG. Your insight has made it a whole new tool for me. Again, thanks. It isn't a big deal but I wonder if you can tell me if there is a way to cite a complete entry in BDAG without locating the end? IE: "Copy this entry"? FYI, I'm using the ...
by Bill Ross
December 6th, 2018, 10:58 am
Forum: Other
Topic: Why is λόγος consistently translated as "word"?
Replies: 24
Views: 15340

Re: Why is λόγος consistently translated as "word"?

Thank you Barry, for your research. I admit freely that I'm talking out of my depth when it comes to the Latin and could fairly easily be convinced that I'm simply missing the boat on the Latin part (sermo vs verbum) and to be honest I don't think that translating LOGOS as "speech" solves all the pr...
by Bill Ross
December 6th, 2018, 8:41 am
Forum: Other
Topic: Why is λόγος consistently translated as "word"?
Replies: 24
Views: 15340

Re: Why is λόγος consistently translated as "word"?

Also, I noticed today that for the verbal form of LOGOS (λέγω) BDAG gives as the #1 usage: ① to express oneself orally or in written form, utter in words, say, tell, give expression to, the gener. sense (not in Hom., for this εἶπον, ἐν[ν]έπω, et al.)... Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., Bauer, W., & Gingric...

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