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by Bill Ross
January 29th, 2020, 2:55 pm
Forum: Other
Topic: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?
Replies: 21
Views: 1316

Re: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?

From what I understand, this construction is employed when you want to avoid the definiteness of the article. This implies, I have read, "quality". It can, from what I understand also have the sense "and the Expression was a god". If John wanted to say that the Expression was "the [one true] God" t...
by Bill Ross
January 29th, 2020, 8:21 am
Forum: Other
Topic: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?
Replies: 21
Views: 1316

Re: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?

That appears to have some overlap but is, I think, distinct 1Cor 12:3: Ἰησοῦς is discourse old, we already know who Jesus is, so it's the topic. We say (or an imaginary person says) something about Jesus. ἀνάθεμα and κύριος tell what Jesus is (in someone's opinion), they are both statements about J...
by Bill Ross
January 29th, 2020, 5:19 am
Forum: Other
Topic: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?
Replies: 21
Views: 1316

Re: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?

Compare also with the famous καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος in John 1:1. That appears to have some overlap but is, I think, distinct, but I can only opine. This is a contrast: 2 Cor 4:5 οὐ γὰρ ἑαυτοὺς κηρύσσομεν ἀλλὰ Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν κύριον ἑαυτοὺς δὲ δούλους ὑμῶν διὰ Ἰησοῦν But this is very similar: Phil 2:11 ...
by Bill Ross
January 28th, 2020, 6:52 pm
Forum: Other
Topic: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?
Replies: 21
Views: 1316

Re: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?

Could you be more specific? I don't see anything unusual about the word order. Well, "choice implies meaning" and all that... why it's κύριος Ἰησοῦς and not Ἰησοῦς κύριος? I would say Ἰησοῦς is topic, κύριος is focus which is fronted for "emphasis". (Compare with ἀνάθεμα Ἰησοῦς.) In English it woul...
by Bill Ross
January 28th, 2020, 6:10 pm
Forum: Other
Topic: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?
Replies: 21
Views: 1316

Re: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?

Barry Hofstetter wrote:
January 28th, 2020, 5:55 pm
Bill Ross wrote:
January 28th, 2020, 3:05 pm
Barry Hofstetter wrote:
January 28th, 2020, 2:19 pm
Simply because it would be normal Greek to supply ἐστί with both phrases.
Thanks, Barry. I was more confused by the word order. Does this suggest emphasis or something?
Could you be more specific? I don't see anything unusual about the word order.
Well then no worries. Peace.
by Bill Ross
January 28th, 2020, 3:05 pm
Forum: Other
Topic: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?
Replies: 21
Views: 1316

Re: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?

Barry Hofstetter wrote:
January 28th, 2020, 2:19 pm
Simply because it would be normal Greek to supply ἐστί with both phrases.
Thanks, Barry. I was more confused by the word order. Does this suggest emphasis or something?
by Bill Ross
January 28th, 2020, 7:38 am
Forum: Other
Topic: In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?
Replies: 21
Views: 1316

In 1 Corinthians 12:3, why is κύριος Ἰησοῦς usually rendered "Jesus is Lord"?

[1Co 12:3 MGNT] (3) διὸ γνωρίζω ὑμῖν ὅτι οὐδεὶς ἐν πνεύματι θεοῦ λαλῶν λέγει ἀνάθεμα Ἰησοῦς καὶ οὐδεὶς δύναται εἰπεῖν κύριος Ἰησοῦς εἰ μὴ ἐν πνεύματι ἁγίῳ Wouldn't Darby's translation be more accurate than "Jesus is Lord"?: [1Co 12:3 DBY] (3) I give you therefore to know, that no one, speaking in th...
by Bill Ross
November 16th, 2019, 9:32 pm
Forum: Software
Topic: Re-issue of BibleWorks NT Greek sentence diagrams looks promising
Replies: 2
Views: 12401

Re: Re-issue of BibleWorks NT Greek sentence diagrams looks promising

I had the privilege of viewing the output of Ephesians 1 and I must say I'm quite impressed! Beautiful work Randy!
by Bill Ross
August 28th, 2019, 9:20 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: In John 19:27 is it "to his own [home]" or "as his own [mother]"?
Replies: 2
Views: 6027

In John 19:27 is it "to his own [home]" or "as his own [mother]"?

[Jhn 19:27 MGNT] (27) εἶτα λέγει τῷ μαθητῇ ἴδε ἡ μήτηρ σου καὶ ἀπ’ ἐκείνης τῆς ὥρας ἔλαβεν ὁ μαθητὴς αὐτὴν εἰς τὰ ἴδια
by Bill Ross
August 2nd, 2019, 4:25 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Col. 1:15
Replies: 8
Views: 7954

Re: Col. 1:15

In defense of the hair-splitting I might say that if someone has a mental block dealing with an aporetic and they see examples, it could trigger the "dawning".

Also, aporetic is an awesome word that will pepper my speech from now on!

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