Search found 397 matches

by Jason Hare
June 4th, 2011, 2:58 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Matthew 5:3a
Replies: 24
Views: 6471

Re: Matthew 5:3a

About the Hebrew suggestion... I would not expect that unless it came by way of the a Greek text to Matthew. Ruminator - I sent you a PM this morning asking you to change your user name to fit our policy on user names and profiles . Please do so. Hi, Jonathan. I've just looked through the Control P...
by Jason Hare
June 4th, 2011, 12:22 pm
Forum: Introductions
Topic: Jason Hare
Replies: 2
Views: 1278

Jason Hare

χαίρετε I first joined B-Greek around the year 2000. I was a student at Ozark Christian College. Took three years of Greek there, in which we used Mounce and the Erasmian pronunciation. We translated 1 John, the Gospel of John and several other shorter texts while in college. Always felt like my Gre...
by Jason Hare
June 4th, 2011, 11:39 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Mt 1:19 AUTHN object or subject
Replies: 10
Views: 1856

Re: Mt 1:19 AUTHN objcet or subject

AUTHN as an object, yes, it would be the one for the verb PARADEIGMATISAI rather than QELWN (I was looking the sentence as if it were in English). After reading the book review article mentioned in the reference, it dawned to me that it was not much about disgrace to herself. (Once the marriage ple...
by Jason Hare
June 4th, 2011, 11:35 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 14:30
Replies: 24
Views: 2786

Re: John 14:30

Is the double negative οὐκ ἔχει οὐδέν functionally euqivalent to ἔχει οὐδέν? AS I understand it, a "double negative" like this serves to strengthen the force of the negative idea. In other words, something like "he has NOTHING in me." But as Carl said, as you read in the NT, this kind of thing is f...
by Jason Hare
June 4th, 2011, 11:29 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Matthew 5:3a
Replies: 24
Views: 6471

Re: Matthew 5:3a

When the meaning is not clear it is rarely a grammatical problem, but rather a problem with a literal rendering. Although the Greek word πτωχοὶ basically means "poor", the text was first spoken in Hebrew, and the corresponding Hebrew word is much wider in its usage. It can describe a person who is ...
by Jason Hare
June 4th, 2011, 11:25 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 14:30
Replies: 24
Views: 2786

Re: John 14:30

Ancient Greek, like some other languages, tends to use the negating word (οὐ or μὴ) with a second negative adverb or pronoun. This is one of the structural features of ancient Greek usage that one learns when one works systematically through a beginning Greek textbook. One does not learn things lik...
by Jason Hare
June 3rd, 2011, 4:37 pm
Forum: Introductions
Topic: David Fish
Replies: 3
Views: 1414

Re: David Fish

Hola, David. Not sure if you remember me. I'm Jason Hare. I was at OCC between 1998 and 2001. I studied Greek with Dr. Boles all three years and Hebrew with Dr. Pechawer. I've been living in Israel for the past four years, and I continue to study Greek informally. Were any of the professors at Ozark...