I just wanted to let you know that I've split your post off of the main discussion to allow for it to be answered directly. This is what we're discussing in the thread Where to make comments on verses? by Louis Sorenson.
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- July 23rd, 2011, 12:05 pm
- Forum: Series on Isaiah
- Topic: Where to make comments on verses?
- Replies: 1
- Views: 711
That would seem the most reasonable option. Posts that are made in the notes thread would likely be overlooked or divided up by further notes, etc. Additionally, creating more threads in the subforum would serve to populate it so that it doesn't remain with only about 66 superstuffed threads. This w...
- July 19th, 2011, 7:22 pm
- Forum: Syntax and Grammar
- Topic: Examples of the Granville Sharp rule outside the NT
- Replies: 24
- Views: 8075
Hi, Paul. Welcome to the forum. Just wanted to let you know that I deleted the duplicate thread. Everything should be in order now. There may be a few more posts that you need to make and have approved before you'll have full posting privileges. It's a safety procedure against spam. I don't have inf...
It's even better in Greek, since it also plays on the names Κῦρος and Κύριος (rather than "Yahweh").Mark Lightman wrote:Which raises the question, whose face is scarier, Cyrus' or Yahweh's? Sorry, that joke is only funny in Greek.
I found it interesting that ἀνίημι in verse six means almost the exact opposite of what it means in verse 9. I've noticed that the Greeks had no problem using the same word in very different, even opposite senses, in the same passage, with no sense of punning. I don't think we do that as much in En...
Shouldn't this be Οἳ ἐβασίλευσαν instead of Οἱ ἐβασίλευσαν? It's the relative pronoun, isn't it?Ken M. Penner wrote:1. (1:1)
1 Ὅρασις, ἣν εἶδεν Ησαιας υἱὸς Αμως ἣν εἶδεν κατὰ τῆς Ιουδαίας, καὶ κατὰ Ιερουσαλημ ἐν βασιλείᾳ Οζιου, καὶ Ιωαθαμ, καὶ Αχαζ καὶ Εζεκιου.
Οἱ ἐβασίλευσαν τῆς Ιουδαίας.
- July 15th, 2011, 7:31 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: What does this text mean? Romans 3:23
- Replies: 13
- Views: 3618
" This passage simply states that everybody fails, everybody misses it." It sounds really good to me. So, do you think the translation of "can't receive" for "ὑστεροῦνται" could be missing the point? If I may respond to this, yes - I feel this misses the essence of what the Greek is saying. It is s...
Yes, καί means "even" at times, when we can take the two things joined as the same thing, the second being a restatement of the first. I wouldn't necessarily translate Luke 1:35 that way. Not saying that it couldn't be done, but I wouldn't read it that way. I think that the two things are different ...
- July 7th, 2011, 9:49 pm
- Forum: Introductions
- Topic: Dewayne Dulaney-Devenios Doulenios
- Replies: 3
- Views: 1346
Welcome to the forum, Dewayne. ?מתי נשוב לכתוב איש לרעהו (Then, I remember how much easier it is to type in modern Hebrew! ?מתי נתחיל להתכתב מחדש) I hope you're doing well. I didn't realize that we had a semi-similar background. I was introduced to Koine at the age of 17 by my pastor at the Lockwood...
For the interested reader: http://www.archive.org/details/theoryof ... 11donouoftCharlie Johnson wrote:Theory of Advanced Greek Prose Composition by John Donovan, Volume 1, includes a digest of Greek idioms. I believe it's available online. I have a PDF file of it.