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by PhillipLebsack
January 27th, 2018, 7:09 am
Forum: Introductions
Topic: Phillip's Humble Introduction
Replies: 1
Views: 1042

Phillip's Humble Introduction

Hello. My name is Phillip and i'm 19. Like a certain Ignatius a long time ago once said, I would consider myself as a student. Always growing. Always seeking to develop a deeper and more thorough knowledge of the truth. Though I will likely keep that mindset for years to come, I fervently hope that ...
by PhillipLebsack
January 24th, 2018, 10:37 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation
Replies: 11
Views: 2844

Re: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation

Jonathan Robie wrote:
January 24th, 2018, 9:28 am

Yes, I think you are misinterpreting ἐδόθη when you say "Moses gave the law". It's a passive verb. Let's change it to an active verb and ask this question:

τίς ἔδωκεν τὸν νόμον διὰ Μωϋσέως;
So, the Law was given through Moses by someone - God.

But, what's the point?
by PhillipLebsack
January 24th, 2018, 9:19 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation
Replies: 11
Views: 2844

Re: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation

I think I made a typo in my last reply. I meant "through" and not "to" where I said "The Law given through Moses." διὰ should be translated as "through" because the following in both cases are genitives. It's just serving to tell us who gave the Law - Moses, and how grace and truth came - through Je...
by PhillipLebsack
January 24th, 2018, 7:07 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation
Replies: 11
Views: 2844

Re: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation

After giving this some more thought, I think what you said about the juxtaposition being created is the best way to interpret it. Let me restate what you're saying in other words, and please correct my understanding if i'm wrong... You're saying that the text is saying "The Law being given to Moses"...
by PhillipLebsack
January 23rd, 2018, 11:47 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation
Replies: 11
Views: 2844

Re: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation

I don't see that big a difference, definitely not a huge one, but translating this with a 'but' feels a bit strong to me. In the Greek text you just cited, this is simple apposition with no word to indicate the 'but'. I just checked Alan's site to see if some of the translations were using a text w...
by PhillipLebsack
January 23rd, 2018, 6:17 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation
Replies: 11
Views: 2844

John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation

John 1:17 ὅτι ὁ νόμος διὰ Μωϋσέως ἐδόθη, ἡ χάρις καὶ ἡ ἀλήθεια διὰ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐγένετο. Should this be read as creating a contrast between the Law of Moses and the grace and truth of Jesus Christ, where the ὅτι is following up what is said in the previous verse... "For the law was given through Mo...
by PhillipLebsack
January 23rd, 2018, 5:26 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John's Use of Feminine Nouns
Replies: 3
Views: 1354

John's Use of Feminine Nouns

John 1:14 "Καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας·" I've noticed that John here is using the feminine form of "flesh" to equate with "The Word". This isn't the only instance of this happening. Any i...
by PhillipLebsack
January 18th, 2018, 8:57 am
Forum: Grammar Questions
Topic: John 1:6 Questions about the participle ἀπεσταλμένος
Replies: 7
Views: 2534

Re: John 1:6 Questions about the participle ἀπεσταλμένος

Thanks so much for your replies.

I looked over Straub's paper. It was really helpful. Kind of exhaustive, but very helpful.
by PhillipLebsack
January 17th, 2018, 10:37 am
Forum: Grammar Questions
Topic: John 1:6 Questions about the participle ἀπεσταλμένος
Replies: 7
Views: 2534

John 1:6 Questions about the participle ἀπεσταλμένος

Hi! So as far as I know this hasn't been posted yet on the forums... On gntreader.com John 1:6 reads as "Ἐγένετο ἄνθρωπος ἀπεσταλμένος παρὰ θεοῦ, ὄνομα αὐτῷ Ἰωάννης·" From an overall view of the text, it is very clear what the text is saying. Something along of the lines of "There was a man who was ...

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