Search found 251 matches

by timothy_p_mcmahon
May 27th, 2012, 12:30 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: σαμαρειτης - Noun / Adjective
Replies: 26
Views: 7801

Re: σαμαρειτης - Noun / Adjective

David, I'm wondering why this makes such a difference to you. It's obvious what the word means in the context. Whether it's a noun or an adjective doesn't affect the sense. Who cares how a dictionary parses it?
by timothy_p_mcmahon
March 18th, 2012, 3:54 am
Forum: Word Meanings
Topic: Ammonius on Βούλομαι and θέλω
Replies: 4
Views: 1126

Re: Ammonius on Βούλομαι and θέλω

David Lim wrote:
Stephen Carlson wrote:I noticed you corrected "επυ" to "επι" but isn't "τὸ δ' ἐθέλειν" supposed to be "το δε θελειν"?
θέλω and εθέλω are by-forms of the same verb.
by timothy_p_mcmahon
March 14th, 2012, 1:06 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Romans 4:18 - παρ’ ἐλπίδα ἐπ’ ἐλπίδι
Replies: 9
Views: 1652

Re: Romans 4:18 - παρ’ ἐλπίδα ἐπ’ ἐλπίδι

I notice that most translations "seem to omit" παρα and render επι as "against". How come? I think you're misreading the translations. Good ol' KJV, for example, renders "Who against hope believed in hope" — 'against hope' being their treatment of παρ’ ἐλπίδα and 'in hope' their rendition of ἐπ’ ἐλ...
by timothy_p_mcmahon
March 3rd, 2012, 11:59 pm
Forum: Word Meanings
Topic: Word-Study Fallacies
Replies: 5
Views: 2621

Re: Word-Study Fallacies

David Lim wrote:So I cannot believe the suggestion that two different meanings of "διαθηκη" are used in Hebrews, unless we think that the author of Hebrews was just making an empty argument.
One man's empty argument is another man's midrash.
by timothy_p_mcmahon
February 27th, 2012, 7:18 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Hebrews 6:1 φερωμεθα
Replies: 18
Views: 3180

Re: Hebrews 6:1 φερωμεθα

Professor Conrad: I like your dynamic rendering. I think it largely captures the sense. One question: I note you take τελειότητα as referring to the consummation of the λόγον rather than to the spiritual maturity of the readers. Does the presence of the article with τελειότητα influence this choice?...
by timothy_p_mcmahon
February 27th, 2012, 1:06 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Hebrews 6:1 φερωμεθα
Replies: 18
Views: 3180

Re: Hebrews 6:1 φερωμεθα

Professor Conrad: Love your description of the MP imperative as "consent to such a process and actively pursue it." Would you view in similar terms the 3rd-person imperative? I'm thinking of a text such as Colossians 2:16... μη ουν τις υμας κρινετω εν βρωσει η εν ποσει η εν μερει εορτης η νουμηνιας ...
by timothy_p_mcmahon
February 21st, 2012, 11:57 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Romans 8:11
Replies: 2
Views: 1154

Re: Romans 8:11

Mike Baber wrote:I've often seen Romans 8:11 used as a prooftext that the "Holy Spirit raised Jesus from the dead."
Yet another example of the abuse of Greek by people who can't read it.

You're quite correct, Mike.
by timothy_p_mcmahon
February 19th, 2012, 1:57 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: λάθρᾳ in Matt 1:19
Replies: 26
Views: 4990

Re: λάθρᾳ in Matt 1:19

David Instone-Brewer in Divorce and Remarriage in the Bible understands that Joseph was planning to use a Hillelite 'any matter' divorce, which "required no public trial, no evidence brought by witnesses, and very little fuss... a quiet and relatively private procedure" (p.115). If λαθραῖος can mean...
by timothy_p_mcmahon
January 26th, 2012, 3:26 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Ephesians 2:8 - τοῦτο
Replies: 6
Views: 1024

Re: Ephesians 2:8 - τοῦτο

On the other hand, I have no problem with πίστις as the antecedent because (1) in Greek you can say αὕτη ἐστιν πίστις or τούτ’ ἐστιν πίστις Mark: Can you cite any examples of the neuter τοῦτο being used in this manner? All the NT examples, at least, of τούτ’ ἐστιν introducing a non-neuter predicate...
by timothy_p_mcmahon
January 20th, 2012, 12:58 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Acts 2:4, the article with the/a holy spirit
Replies: 3
Views: 1120

Re: Acts 2:4, the article with the/a holy spirit

This question probably ventures more deeply into theology than is appropriate for B-Greek, but I would answer with a resounding NO . The use of the article is quite complex and no two languages — e.g., Greek and English — use the article identically. Thomson's underlying idea presumably is that ther...

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