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by timothy_p_mcmahon
February 27th, 2012, 1:06 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Hebrews 6:1 φερωμεθα
Replies: 18
Views: 3345

Re: Hebrews 6:1 φερωμεθα

Professor Conrad: Love your description of the MP imperative as "consent to such a process and actively pursue it." Would you view in similar terms the 3rd-person imperative? I'm thinking of a text such as Colossians 2:16... μη ουν τις υμας κρινετω εν βρωσει η εν ποσει η εν μερει εορτης η νουμηνιας ...
by timothy_p_mcmahon
February 21st, 2012, 11:57 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Romans 8:11
Replies: 2
Views: 1385

Re: Romans 8:11

Mike Baber wrote:I've often seen Romans 8:11 used as a prooftext that the "Holy Spirit raised Jesus from the dead."
Yet another example of the abuse of Greek by people who can't read it.

You're quite correct, Mike.
by timothy_p_mcmahon
February 19th, 2012, 1:57 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: λάθρᾳ in Matt 1:19
Replies: 26
Views: 5656

Re: λάθρᾳ in Matt 1:19

David Instone-Brewer in Divorce and Remarriage in the Bible understands that Joseph was planning to use a Hillelite 'any matter' divorce, which "required no public trial, no evidence brought by witnesses, and very little fuss... a quiet and relatively private procedure" (p.115). If λαθραῖος can mean...
by timothy_p_mcmahon
January 26th, 2012, 3:26 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Ephesians 2:8 - τοῦτο
Replies: 6
Views: 1083

Re: Ephesians 2:8 - τοῦτο

On the other hand, I have no problem with πίστις as the antecedent because (1) in Greek you can say αὕτη ἐστιν πίστις or τούτ’ ἐστιν πίστις Mark: Can you cite any examples of the neuter τοῦτο being used in this manner? All the NT examples, at least, of τούτ’ ἐστιν introducing a non-neuter predicate...
by timothy_p_mcmahon
January 20th, 2012, 12:58 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Acts 2:4, the article with the/a holy spirit
Replies: 3
Views: 1287

Re: Acts 2:4, the article with the/a holy spirit

This question probably ventures more deeply into theology than is appropriate for B-Greek, but I would answer with a resounding NO . The use of the article is quite complex and no two languages — e.g., Greek and English — use the article identically. Thomson's underlying idea presumably is that ther...
by timothy_p_mcmahon
January 12th, 2012, 10:16 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Luke 6:12 - odd genitive
Replies: 5
Views: 1394

Re: Luke 6:12 - odd genitive

Would you consider Mark 11:22 similar?

ο ιησους λεγει αυτοις εχετε πιστιν θεου
by timothy_p_mcmahon
January 6th, 2012, 1:08 am
Forum: Church Fathers and Patristic Greek Texts
Topic: The Apostolic Creed
Replies: 9
Views: 4460

Re: The Apostolic Creed

Does the ἐπὶ in παθόντα ἐπὶ Ποντίου Πιλάτου mean something like 'at the hands of'?
by timothy_p_mcmahon
January 2nd, 2012, 7:22 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: επὶ [τῷ] παροργισμῷ Eph. 4:26
Replies: 5
Views: 895

Re: επὶ [τῳ] παροργισμῳ Eph. 4:26

Really? Yes, really. The article is but one factor in the meaning of any phrase, and there are so many motivations for it that attempting to base one's interpretation of a text on its presence or absence is ill-advised. 2) It's the use of the preposition with the dative that gives either the locati...
by timothy_p_mcmahon
January 2nd, 2012, 5:18 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: επὶ [τῷ] παροργισμῷ Eph. 4:26
Replies: 5
Views: 895

Re: επὶ [τῳ] παροργισμῳ Eph. 4:26

1) The presence or absence of an article rarely is decisive for the sense

2) How could 'anger' be a location? If it's 'locative' that would have to be figurative

3) The sense of the command is pretty transparent, so does it really matter which 'function of the dative' this is?
by timothy_p_mcmahon
December 17th, 2011, 1:43 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: Middle Voice Categories
Replies: 3
Views: 2440

Re: Middle Voice Categories

cwconrad wrote:Allan's book as published by Brill is frightfully priced
Every book published by Brill is frightfully priced!

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