Search found 1794 matches

by cwconrad
June 10th, 2011, 7:42 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Mark 10:36 Τί θέλετέ [με] ποιήσω ὑμῖν;
Replies: 34
Views: 9442

Re: Mark 10:36 Τί θέλετέ [με] ποιήσω ὑμῖν;

There's a good deal of talk (I've done my share) about Mark's "oddball" Greek; nobody talks about solecisms, so far as I know, but there are several passages that are similar to this one in that they are perfectly intelligible Greek -- there's really no missing or added meaning, I think we'd agree ...
by cwconrad
June 9th, 2011, 9:41 am
Forum: Seen on the Web
Topic: Beginning to Think in Greek
Replies: 1
Views: 536

Beginning to Think in Greek

I'm not sure that Michael Gilleland's blog entitled "Laudator Temporis Acti" has been mentioned among blogs with frequent Greek (sometimes Biblical Greek) content: http://laudatortemporisacti.blogspot.com/ -- the title is from Horace's (Ars Poetica) phrase describing the typical aged man -- ("nostal...
by cwconrad
June 9th, 2011, 7:05 am
Forum: Other
Topic: More Greek Manuscripts Digitised by the British Library
Replies: 1
Views: 2043

More Greek Manuscripts Digitised by the British Library

The following announcement was posted this morning to the old B-Greek mailing list by Sophie Arp at the British Library: Phase two of the British Library’s project to digitise all of its ca. 1,000 Greek manuscripts is now well under way. This phase (also generously funded by the Stavros Niarchos Fou...
by cwconrad
June 9th, 2011, 6:59 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Mark 10:36 Τί θέλετέ [με] ποιήσω ὑμῖν;
Replies: 34
Views: 9442

Re: Mark 10:36 Τί θέλετέ [με] ποιήσω ὑμῖν;

No, I think the intent is rather, "You want - me - I should do what thing for you?" That is, it's the equivalent of τί θέλετέ με ποιῆσαι ὑμῖν; The subjunctive clause is indeed a ἵνα clause with the ἵνα omitted as it often is in what I previously referred to as "substantive result clauses" -- Smyth §...
by cwconrad
June 8th, 2011, 10:45 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Double Negatives (was John 14:30)
Replies: 19
Views: 2593

Re: Double Negatives (was John 14:30)

Rightly or wrongly, I have always thought of adjectives in what old-fashioned grammarians called the alternative predicate position (e.g. ὁ ἀνὴρ ὁ ἀγαθός) as a sort of appositive addition: "the man, i.e. the good one"; some prefer to describe this as a kind of relative clause: "the man who is good....
by cwconrad
June 8th, 2011, 10:12 am
Forum: Church Fathers and Patristic Greek Texts
Topic: Chrysostom on Interpretation
Replies: 1
Views: 867

Re: Chrysostom on Interpretation

This bit comes from Chrysostom's commentary on Galatians . I thought it might interest some readers. Below I have a few questions and comments. Τοῦτο τοίνυν ποιῶμεν. Οὐδὲ γὰρ δεῖ τὰ ῥήματα γυμνὰ ἐξετάζειν, ἐπεὶ πολλὰ ἕψεται τὰ ἁμαρτήματα· οὐδὲ τὴν λέξιν καθ' ἑαυτὴν βασανίζειν, ἀλλὰ τῇ διανοίᾳ προσέ...
by cwconrad
June 8th, 2011, 6:48 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Mark 10:36 Τί θέλετέ [με] ποιήσω ὑμῖν;
Replies: 34
Views: 9442

Re: Mark 10:36 Τί θέλετέ [με] ποιήσω ὑμῖν;

There's a consensus, I think, that the bracketed enclitic με is the problem, not the construction τί θέλετε ποιήσω ὑμῖν; There's a good deal of talk (I've done my share) about Mark's "oddball" Greek; nobody talks about solecisms, so far as I know, but there are several passages that are similar to t...
by cwconrad
June 7th, 2011, 7:58 pm
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: Passive Imperative
Replies: 12
Views: 7741

Re: Passive Imperative

Two (sets of) questions. First, Carl, did you mean that all m/p imperatives are really middle, or just the ones I listed? I would say that imperatives as such must express an urgency for someone or something to happen; I think that has to mean that the imperative to act must rest upon the subject o...
by cwconrad
June 7th, 2011, 11:32 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Double Negatives (was John 14:30)
Replies: 19
Views: 2593

Re: Double Negatives (was John 14:30)

I haven't been participating in this thread but I've followed it with interest. I'd like to make a comment at the end, but also make a couple points here and there, deleting what's not relevant to my comments. I meant "logical inversion" in mathematics or computer science, not that Greek is illogica...
by cwconrad
June 4th, 2011, 7:17 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 14:30
Replies: 24
Views: 2998

Re: John 14:30

Is the double negative οὐκ ἔχει οὐδέν functionally equivalent to ἔχει οὐδέν? Ancient Greek, like some other languages, tends to use the negating word (οὐ or μὴ) with a second negative adverb or pronoun. This is one of the structural features of ancient Greek usage that one learns when one works sys...