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by cwconrad
August 22nd, 2016, 8:44 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Eph.4:16 διὰ πάσης ἁφῆς τῆς ἐπιχορηγίας
Replies: 10
Views: 1789

Re: Eph.4:16 διὰ πάσης ἁφῆς τῆς ἐπιχορηγίας

Should we conjecture that the author may have aspired to emulate the style of social-science writing? I think I'd agree with you, Barry, that this is (a little) easier to read if we don't try to parse it, but, on the other hand, I think those who write with a deliberate intent to be understood writ...
by cwconrad
August 21st, 2016, 5:25 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Eph.4:16 διὰ πάσης ἁφῆς τῆς ἐπιχορηγίας
Replies: 10
Views: 1789

Re: Eph.4:16 διὰ πάσης ἁφῆς τῆς ἐπιχορηγίας

I think the basic distinction of a beginners' question is one where the person asking has no idea what the answer might be. That is the case here. I am having trouble understanding the composition of the phrase διὰ πάσης ἁφῆς τῆς ἐπιχορηγίας in the following verse; ἐξ οὗ πᾶν τὸ σῶμα συναρμολογούμεν...
by cwconrad
August 19th, 2016, 10:24 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Eph.4:16 διὰ πάσης ἁφῆς τῆς ἐπιχορηγίας
Replies: 10
Views: 1789

Re: Eph.4:16 διὰ πάσης ἁφῆς τῆς ἐπιχορηγίας

I think the basic distinction of a beginners' question is one where the person asking has no idea what the answer might be. That is the case here. I am having trouble understanding the composition of the phrase διὰ πάσης ἁφῆς τῆς ἐπιχορηγίας in the following verse; ἐξ οὗ πᾶν τὸ σῶμα συναρμολογούμεν...
by cwconrad
August 15th, 2016, 9:04 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: 2 Thes. 3:11 Is this humour?μηδὲν ἐργαζομένους, ἀλλὰ περιεργ
Replies: 5
Views: 1104

Re: 2 Thes. 3:11 Is this humour?μηδὲν ἐργαζομένους, ἀλλὰ περ

... Here is a phrase which displays some features, which could be interpreted as humour: μηδὲν ἐργαζομένους, ἀλλὰ περιεργαζομένους. The word ἐργάζεσθαι τι (used with a valance of 2 - second element in the accusative) means "to get something done", while περιεργάζεσθαι (used with a valance of 1) mea...
by cwconrad
August 2nd, 2016, 8:06 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: OU MH + Aorist Subj Ever NOT Emphatic?
Replies: 6
Views: 1242

Re: OU MH + Aorist Subj Ever NOT Emphatic?

I haven't heard this. The article came out well before the discovery of a large number of documentary papyri, which greatly increased our knowledge of the Koine. I would love for newer studies (or do your own) based on the newer materials, rather than rely on anything from the 19th century and earl...
by cwconrad
July 31st, 2016, 6:01 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Revelation 3:10 τηρήσω ἐκ
Replies: 5
Views: 1265

Re: Revelation 3:10 τηρήσω ἐκ

ὅτι ἐτήρησας τὸν λόγον τῆς ὑπομονῆς μου, κἀγώ σε τηρήσω ἐκ τῆς ὥρας τοῦ πειρασμοῦ τῆς μελλούσης ἔρχεσθαι ἐπὶ τῆς οἰκουμένης ὅλης, πειράσαι τοὺς κατοικοῦντας ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς. Where can I find a good discussion of the plausible meanings of τηρήσω ἐκ in this verse? The only other place I see τηρεῖν+ἐκ in ...
by cwconrad
July 30th, 2016, 5:25 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: 1 Cor 16:21 Why does Paul use the genitive in his signature?
Replies: 6
Views: 1041

Re: 1 Cor 16:21 Why does Paul use the genitive in his signat

My question is perhaps really about whether, from the wording, there any hint as to how much of the phrase was written by the actual man Paul himself? How much of the phrase do you think was written by Paul ? For my part, I think Paul just made his mark, and I think that the genitive for Παύλου is ...
by cwconrad
July 29th, 2016, 5:24 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: 1 Cor 16:21 Why does Paul use the genitive in his signature?
Replies: 6
Views: 1041

Re: 1 Cor 16:21 Why does Paul use the genitive in his signat

Ὁ ἀσπασμὸς τῇ ἐμῇ χειρὶ Παύλου. Why does Paul sign his signature (ὑπέγραψεν) in the genitive? The sender of a letter's name on the verso of a papyrus is usually written in the nominative . At the risk of stating a truism, the case of a noun qualifying another noun is ordinarily the genitive.This is...
by cwconrad
July 29th, 2016, 12:22 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: 1 Cor 16:21 Why does Paul use the genitive in his signature?
Replies: 6
Views: 1041

Re: 1 Cor 16:21 Why does Paul use the genitive in his signat

Ὁ ἀσπασμὸς τῇ ἐμῇ χειρὶ Παύλου. Why does Paul sign his signature (ὑπέγραψεν) in the genitive? The sender of a letter's name on the verso of a papyrus is usually written in the nominative. At the risk of stating a truism, the case of a noun qualifying another noun is ordinarily the genitive.This is ...
by cwconrad
July 28th, 2016, 9:02 am
Forum: Other Greek Texts
Topic: A question about πρός in an epigram about friends.
Replies: 11
Views: 10709

Re: A question about πρός in an epigram about friends.

That is to say, I think that Pherecydes' epigram is intended to express guilelessness. Rather than ask a "Why didn't he say ....? question, let me ask which Greek word do you think is closest to you idea of what you think he meant by guileless? The words that come to my mind expressing that sort of...

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