The article (excerpt below) asserts that the phrase "Seat of Moses" (cf Matthew 23:2) is singular, and hence it is difficult to suggest that the phrase could have referred literally to seats (plural) that would have been found in Synagogues. It seems to me that in English, it is possible to speak in non specifically in the singular of something that is in reality plural. i.e. "He likes to sit in the front seat of the bus" (even though there are many front seats in many busses, and every day he takes a seat in the front)Ἐπὶ τῆς Μωϋσέως καθέδρας ἐκάθισαν οἱ γραμματεῖς καὶ οἱ Φαρισαῖοι
So how does it work in Greek, is the argument that the Greek is singular prohibit a literal interpretation of the "Seat of Moses"?