In Revelation 1:4 it says, "χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος..."
Why does it say ἀπὸ ὁ instead of ἀπὸ τοῦ?
ἀπὸ ὁ...
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Re: ἀπὸ ὁ...
Chris Servanti wrote:In Revelation 1:4 it says, "χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος..."
Why does it say ἀπὸ ὁ instead of ἀπὸ τοῦ?
You might think of ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος as a proper name without inflection. This is just one example of the author's "creative" use of the language.
C. Stirling Bartholomew
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Re: ἀπὸ ὁ...
Or you could read it as a truncated version of "ἀπὸ (οὗ ἐστιν) ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος..."In Revelation 1:4 it says, "χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος..."
Why does it say ἀπὸ ὁ instead of ἀπὸ τοῦ?
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Re: ἀπὸ ὁ...
PerhapsLouis L Sorenson wrote:Or you could read it as a truncated version of "ἀπὸ (οὗ ἐστιν) ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος..."In Revelation 1:4 it says, "χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος..."
Why does it say ἀπὸ ὁ instead of ἀπὸ τοῦ?
ἀπὸ (αὐτοῦ ὅς ἐστιν) ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος
Louis, perhaps yours would mean that ἀπὸ (οὗ) and ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος stand either side of the ἐστιν, with the ἀπὸ as the first word in a new phrase, I think.
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)