διδάσκαλος in nominative
Posted: March 1st, 2016, 5:19 am
οἴδαμεν ὅτι ἀπὸ θεοῦ ἐλήλυθας διδάσκαλος· (Joh 3:2). Why (διδάσκαλος) came here in nominative case, not in accusative? isn't it a direct object for verb (οἴδαμεν)?
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https://www.ibiblio.org:443/bgreek/forum/viewtopic.php?f=10&t=3610
No; rather, the entire clause introduced by ὅτι is the object of οἴδαμεν: what we "know" is (the fact that) ...Girgis Boshra wrote:οἴδαμεν ὅτι ἀπὸ θεοῦ ἐλήλυθας διδάσκαλος· (Joh 3:2). Why (διδάσκαλος) came here in nominative case, not in accusative? isn't it a direct object for verb (οἴδαμεν)?