Biblical Greek morphology and syntax, aspect, linguistics, discourse analysis, and related topics
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Wallace lists (συνεκάθισεν) as a debatable example of the proleptic (futuristic) aorist on page 564 of GGBB. I would admit that it is grammatically possible, but I don't feel that it is likely. The context seems to me to be stressing the present and future effects of Jesus's sacrifice in the lives of believers. For me the contrast with chapter 1:19-21 is the nail in the coffin for viewing the aorist as having a future meaning, but, even if I am right, I don't think it has a great impact on the meaning of the passage.Eph. 2:5 καὶ ὄντας ἡμᾶς νεκροὺς τοῖς παραπτώμασιν συνεζωοποίησεν τῷ Χριστῷ, -χάριτί ἐστε σεσῳσμένοι-
Eph. 2:6 καὶ συνήγειρεν καὶ συνεκάθισεν ἐν τοῖς ἐπουρανίοις ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ,
Eph. 2:7 ἵνα ἐνδείξηται ἐν τοῖς αἰῶσιν τοῖς ἐπερχομένοις τὸ ὑπερβάλλον πλοῦτος τῆς χάριτος αὐτοῦ ἐν χρηστότητι ἐφ᾿ ἡμᾶς ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ.
Eph. 1:19 καὶ τί τὸ ὑπερβάλλον μέγεθος τῆς δυνάμεως αὐτοῦ εἰς ἡμᾶς τοὺς πιστεύοντας κατὰ τὴν ἐνέργειαν τοῦ κράτους τῆς ἰσχύος αὐτοῦ.
Eph. 1:20 Ἣν ἐνήργησεν ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ ἐγείρας αὐτὸν ἐκ νεκρῶν καὶ καθίσας ἐν δεξιᾷ αὐτοῦ ἐν τοῖς ἐπουρανίοις
Eph. 1:21 ὑπεράνω πάσης ἀρχῆς καὶ ἐξουσίας καὶ δυνάμεως καὶ κυριότητος καὶ παντὸς ὀνόματος ὀνομαζομένου, οὐ μόνον ἐν τῷ αἰῶνι τούτῳ ἀλλὰ καὶ ἐν τῷ μέλλοντι·
Ἀσπάζομαι μὲν καὶ φιλῶ, πείσομαι δὲ μᾶλλον τῷ θεῷ ἢ ὑμῖν.-Ἀπολογία Σωκράτους 29δ
If he is describing their current condition as opposed to their prior condition outside of Christ, why would you want to make them futures?ScottLawson wrote: Eph. 2:6 καὶ συνήγειρεν καὶ συνεκάθισεν ἐν τοῖς ἐπουρανίοις ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ,
Is it possible that the two aorist verbs in Ephesians 2:6 are future referring?