Participial antecedent
Posted: March 24th, 2012, 12:21 pm
In Koine Greek, must every participle have an antecedent (whether implicit or explicit in the text itself)?
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You're right. Maybe I should just explain what I mean.Stephen Carlson wrote:I usually reserve the term "antecedent" for pronouns.
Like adjectives, participles do not have to refer to another entity. For example, they can be substantivized with the article.
Stephen
Quite to the conrary, ὁ depends upon πιστεύων in the same manner as an adjective on a noun that it modified. ὁ πιστεύων functions as a noun, in this instance as the subject of an implicit clause, ὁ πιστεύων [ἐστίν ὁ νικῶν τον κόσμον]. A participle can function substantivally -- like a noun, as in this instance, adjectivally -- like an adjective describing a noun, or adverbially, in agreement with some substantive but characterizing the action of the predicate associated with that substantive. Only pronouns have "antecedents" -- at least, in the standard traditional sense of the word "antecedent."Mike Baber wrote:You're right. Maybe I should just explain what I mean.Stephen Carlson wrote:I usually reserve the term "antecedent" for pronouns.
Like adjectives, participles do not have to refer to another entity. For example, they can be substantivized with the article.
Stephen
Does every participle modify something, whether that "something" is implicit (unwritten) or explicit (written) in the text?
Let's take ὁ πιστεύων in 1 John 5:5. Doesn't πιστεύων modify ὁ?
For comparison, an adjective A always occurs in one of the following structures ("T" and "N" denote the article and noun):Mike Baber wrote:[...]
Does every participle modify something, whether that "something" is implicit (unwritten) or explicit (written) in the text?
Let's take ὁ πιστεύων in 1 John 5:5. Doesn't πιστεύων modify ὁ?