David Lim wrote:MAubrey wrote:How can you tell the usage in the original post is adverbial?
Because it should have been "ο δουλος ο ων μωρος εκλεψε τον οινον" if it were adjectival.
I surely hope that's not Tim's reason.
David Lim wrote:MAubrey wrote:How can you tell the usage in the original post is adverbial?
Because it should have been "ο δουλος ο ων μωρος εκλεψε τον οινον" if it were adjectival.
MAubrey wrote:David Lim wrote:MAubrey wrote:How can you tell the usage in the original post is adverbial?
Because it should have been "ο δουλος ο ων μωρος εκλεψε τον οινον" if it were adjectival.
I surely hope that's not Tim's reason.
Stephen Carlson wrote:David's theory (if I understand it right) is that post-nominal modifiers are adjectival with the article and "adverbial" without. As far as I can tell, few other (if any) hold to that.
Ken M. Penner wrote:Stephen Carlson wrote:David's theory (if I understand it right) is that post-nominal modifiers are adjectival with the article and "adverbial" without. As far as I can tell, few other (if any) hold to that.
I would instead understand David to be saying that the definiteness of adjectival post-nominal modifiers should agree with what they are modifying.
MAubrey wrote:David Lim wrote:Because it should have been "ο δουλος ο ων μωρος εκλεψε τον οινον" if it were adjectival.
I surely hope that's not Tim's reason.
Luke 22:3: Ἰούδαν τὸν καλούμενον Ἰσκαριώτην ὄντα ἐκ τοῦ ἀριθμοῦ τῶν δώδεκα
John 19:38: Ἰωσὴφ ὁ ἀπὸ Ἁριμαθαίας ὢν μαθητὴς τοῦ Ἰησοῦ
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