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γε with the preposition διά - Lk.11:8, Lk.18:5

Posted: June 13th, 2016, 6:44 am
by Stephen Hughes
Luke 11:8 wrote:Λέγω ὑμῖν, εἰ καὶ οὐ δώσει αὐτῷ ἀναστάς, διὰ τὸ εἶναι αὐτοῦ φίλον, διά γε τὴν ἀναίδειαν αὐτοῦ ἐγερθεὶς δώσει αὐτῷ ὅσον χρῄζει.
Luke 18:5 wrote:διά γε τὸ παρέχειν μοι κόπον τὴν χήραν ταύτην, ἐκδικήσω αὐτήν, ἵνα μὴ εἰς τέλος ἐρχομένη ὑποπιάζῃ με.
Is the γε in these phrases to show or stress the relationship of this phrase to the others around them, or to give special meaning to the words within the phrases themselves?

Why is διά the only preposition in the NT that is followed by γε?

Re: γε with the preposition διά - Lk.11:8, Lk.18:5

Posted: June 13th, 2016, 8:46 am
by cwconrad
Stephen Hughes wrote:
Luke 11:8 wrote:Λέγω ὑμῖν, εἰ καὶ οὐ δώσει αὐτῷ ἀναστάς, διὰ τὸ εἶναι αὐτοῦ φίλον, διά γε τὴν ἀναίδειαν αὐτοῦ ἐγερθεὶς δώσει αὐτῷ ὅσον χρῄζει.
Luke 18:5 wrote:διά γε τὸ παρέχειν μοι κόπον τὴν χήραν ταύτην, ἐκδικήσω αὐτήν, ἵνα μὴ εἰς τέλος ἐρχομένη ὑποπιάζῃ με.
Is the γε in these phrases to show or stress the relationship of this phrase to the others around them, or to give special meaning to the words within the phrases themselves?
The latter reason, I think: "if for no other reason than his being ornery ...", "if for no other reason than that this widow is giving me grief ... "
Why is διά the only preposition in the NT that is followed by γε?
I would guess that the most obvious answer to this question is that the other prepositions are not, but it's hard to answer a question about a non-fact.

Re: γε with the preposition διά - Lk.11:8, Lk.18:5

Posted: June 13th, 2016, 10:27 am
by Stephen Hughes
διὰ τὸ εἶναι αὐτοῦ φίλον, διά γε τὴν ἀναίδειαν αὐτοῦ 

The γε seems to highlight the phrase as opposed to the other unhighlighted one.

Re: γε with the preposition διά - Lk.11:8, Lk.18:5

Posted: June 13th, 2016, 11:25 pm
by Stephen Hughes
Considering also the verse before Luke 18:4, the γε there seems to be functioning as an adversative conjunction
Luke 18:4, 5 wrote:Καὶ οὐκ ἠθέλησεν ἐπὶ χρόνον· μετὰ δὲ ταῦτα εἶπεν ἐν ἑαυτῷ, Εἰ καὶ τὸν θεὸν οὐ φοβοῦμαι, καὶ ἄνθρωπον οὐκ ἐντρέπομαι·
5 διά γε τὸ παρέχειν μοι κόπον τὴν χήραν ταύτην, ἐκδικήσω αὐτήν, ἵνα μὴ εἰς τέλος ἐρχομένη ὑποπιάζῃ με.
I mean if we weren't told the meaning and function of γε, it would seem here to logically be a conjunction.

"Whether or not I feel the fear of God in my heart (as this woman keeps saying, "δός μοι ἐκδικήσεις ἐκ τοῦ ἐχθροῦ μου. τὸν θεὸν οὐ φοβῃ;" "You should fear God. He will judge you for not giving justice to me"), or feel ashamed of myself in front of people (as this woman keeps saying that I should, "Ἐκδίκησόν με ἀπὸ τοῦ ἀντιδίκου μου. ἄνθρωπον οὐκ ἐντρεπῃ;" "Don't you feel ashamed to walk down the street while I have no justice"), I will however ...".

Do you think there is any validity in taking γε like that?