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Does the use of the perfect in these two verses indicate the time reference before which the sinning was done? Is the προ- talking about Paul's knowledge of the sin - those who were known to be sinning, or to those who themselves previously sinner, but who now longer do?
2 Corinthians 12:21 wrote:μὴ πάλιν ἐλθόντα με ταπεινώσει ὁ θεός μου πρὸς ὑμᾶς, καὶ πενθήσω πολλοὺς τῶν προημαρτηκότων, καὶ μὴ μετανοησάντων ἐπὶ τῇ ἀκαθαρσίᾳ καὶ πορνείᾳ καὶ ἀσελγείᾳ ᾗ ἔπραξαν.
2 Corinthians 13:2 wrote:Προείρηκα καὶ προλέγω, ὡς παρὼν τὸ δεύτερον, καὶ ἀπὼν νῦν γράφω τοῖς προημαρτηκόσιν καὶ τοῖς λοιποῖς πᾶσιν, ὅτι ἐὰν ἔλθω εἰς τὸ πάλιν, οὐ φείσομαι·
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
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Let me just copy your signature and say Οὐκ οἶδα τί λέγεις.
It might helpful to set up a number of reference times and talk about the state of the Corinthians with respect to having sinned.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
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It's hard to see how you can get Paul's knowledge of the situation out of the verbs. His knowledge of the situation comes from his knowledge of the situation, however he obtained it. In both cases, the προημαρτηκότοι are substantive participles, which makes the aspect less important than the action described. I would say the use of the perfect here suggests that Paul has in mind a specific set of sins in a proscribed period of time.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
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