Which verb does this phrase modify?
Posted: January 24th, 2017, 9:19 pm
James 1:21 διὸ ἀποθέμενοι πᾶσαν ῥυπαρίαν καὶ περισσείαν κακίας ἐν πραΰτητι δέξασθε τὸν ἔμφυτον λόγον τὸν δυνάμενον σῶσαι τὰς ψυχὰς ὑμῶν.
In all the English translations I've seen, the phrase ἐν πραΰτητι is usually associated with the following imperative (δέξασθε). However, the Nestle-Aland 27h edition places a comma after πραΰτητι, thereby (I think) associating it with the preceding participle (ἀποθέμενοι). Is there some particular rule or principle which points us in the right direction, or is this just a hermeneutical decision?
In all the English translations I've seen, the phrase ἐν πραΰτητι is usually associated with the following imperative (δέξασθε). However, the Nestle-Aland 27h edition places a comma after πραΰτητι, thereby (I think) associating it with the preceding participle (ἀποθέμενοι). Is there some particular rule or principle which points us in the right direction, or is this just a hermeneutical decision?