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Jn 11:56 OU MH expects negative answer?

Posted: November 13th, 2017, 8:54 pm
by Scott Wells
John 11:56 hOTI OU MH ELQH EIS THN hEORTHN Robertson (Word Pictures) says "The form of the question (indirect discourse after DOKEITE) assumes strongly that Jesus will not (OU MH, double negative w/2nd aor act ELQEI) dare to come this time." Yet John 18:11 is very similar (OU MH + Aor Subj), TO POTHRION hO DEDWKEN MOI hO PATHR OU MH PIW AUTO, and expects an affirmative answer, which ATR affirms.

Does OU MH expect a negative answer in Jn 11:56? If so, is this based on a grammatical argument?

Thanks,
Scott

Re: Jn 11:56 OU MH expects negative answer?

Posted: November 13th, 2017, 9:24 pm
by Jason Hare
Hi, Scott.

Also, note that we have gone to Unicode in place of the old transliteration method. If it's possible for you to use Unicode instead, that would be great. There are several places online where you can copy and paste the Greek text in Unicode.

John 11:56: ἐζήτουν οὖν τὸν Ἰησοῦν καὶ ἔλεγον μετ’ ἀλλήλων ἐν τῷ ἱερῷ ἑστηκότες· Τί δοκεῖ ὑμῖν; ὅτι οὐ μὴ ἔλθῃ εἰς τὴν ἑορτήν;

John 18:11: εἶπεν οὖν ὁ Ἰησοῦς τῷ Πέτρῳ· Βάλε τὴν μάχαιραν εἰς τὴν θήκην· τὸ ποτήριον ὃ δέδωκέν μοι ὁ πατὴρ οὐ μὴ πίω αὐτό;

And your question is about the combination of οὐ μή in interrogatives, and whether we should understand it as implying an affirmative or negative response in the mind of the hearer.

It's clear that 18:11 expects an affirmative response, as you stated. I think I'd probably read it like that in 11:56 also.

Perhaps someone else has some good reason why.

Welcome to the forum!

Re: Jn 11:56 OU MH expects negative answer?

Posted: November 14th, 2017, 8:48 am
by Jonathan Robie
Jason Hare wrote: November 13th, 2017, 9:24 pm John 11:56: ἐζήτουν οὖν τὸν Ἰησοῦν καὶ ἔλεγον μετ’ ἀλλήλων ἐν τῷ ἱερῷ ἑστηκότες· Τί δοκεῖ ὑμῖν; ὅτι οὐ μὴ ἔλθῃ εἰς τὴν ἑορτήν;

John 18:11: εἶπεν οὖν ὁ Ἰησοῦς τῷ Πέτρῳ· Βάλε τὴν μάχαιραν εἰς τὴν θήκην· τὸ ποτήριον ὃ δέδωκέν μοι ὁ πατὴρ οὐ μὴ πίω αὐτό;

And your question is about the combination of οὐ μή in interrogatives, and whether we should understand it as implying an affirmative or negative response in the mind of the hearer.

It's clear that 18:11 expects an affirmative response, as you stated. I think I'd probably read it like that in 11:56 also.

Perhaps someone else has some good reason why.
I have a confession to make.

I maintain a simple guide to Asking Questions in Biblical Greek, and I have never put in the standard explanation that οὐ μή expects a negative answer because of examples like these. But I don't know the answer to his question. So I'm very interested in what others have to say ... it might help me know what to add to my handout.