I read "ἐκ τῶν Φαρισαίων" as providing more information about the "ἄνθρωπος". However when I consult Accordance's "Diagram of the Greek New Testament", it is attached to "Ἦν" rather than "ἄνθρωπος".Ἦν δὲ ἄνθρωπος ἐκ τῶν Φαρισαίων, Νικόδημος ὄνομα αὐτῷ, ἄρχων τῶν Ἰουδαίων·
I don't know a lot about "syntax" yet, I assume someone will have a good reference/recommendation for what to read on this, but in the mean time my question is this. Is it completely subjective as to whether we believe a clause/phrase attaches to the noun or the verb, or am I just wrong i.e. Are there rules/patterns that would dictate or strongly suggest one way is correct?