Question concerning accentuation in contract verbs
Posted: April 26th, 2021, 11:21 am
Hi all,
I created an account to ask this question, as I have been trying to figure it out; it concerns contract verb accentuation in the imperfect.
In multiple sources, it is clarified that if the accent of a contract verb is not on the contracting syllables, it's unaffected by contact rules (which is straightforward and simple). However, what I can't figure out is why on present forms where the accent is on a contracting syllable (like ἐρωτάω) it is not so on the imperfect: ἐρώτων, BUT it is in the first and second person plural of the imperfect.
I cannot figure out why the accent of the present stem is different in the imperfect (aside from the first and second person plural), even while in some of those instances (e.g. the first and second person singular) contraction is occurring; this does not seem to be discussed anywhere explicitly. Is this a pattern in the imperfect?
For example,
present active indicative ἐρωτάω
ἐρωτῶ
ἐρωτᾷς
ἐρωτᾷ
ἐρωτῶμεν
ἐρωτᾶτε
ἐρωτῶσι
but the imperfect is:
ἠρώτων
ἠρώτας
ἠρώτα
ἠρωτῶμεν
ἠρωτᾶτε
ἠρώτων
If it is a pattern in the imperfect (looks to be so from what I've looked up), does the following rule apply?
in imperfect present active contract verbs, the accent immediately precedes the contract syllable in all forms except the first and second-person plural (where normal contract rules are followed).
Thus: ἠρώτων, ἠρώτας, ἠρώτα, ἠρωτῶμεν, ἠρωτᾶτε, ἠρώτων (s.v. from ἐρωτάω)
Note: the irregular forms still have a contracted syllable, even while they do not accentuate it.
Would love some help/feedback; what's going on in the imperfect??
Nathan
I created an account to ask this question, as I have been trying to figure it out; it concerns contract verb accentuation in the imperfect.
In multiple sources, it is clarified that if the accent of a contract verb is not on the contracting syllables, it's unaffected by contact rules (which is straightforward and simple). However, what I can't figure out is why on present forms where the accent is on a contracting syllable (like ἐρωτάω) it is not so on the imperfect: ἐρώτων, BUT it is in the first and second person plural of the imperfect.
I cannot figure out why the accent of the present stem is different in the imperfect (aside from the first and second person plural), even while in some of those instances (e.g. the first and second person singular) contraction is occurring; this does not seem to be discussed anywhere explicitly. Is this a pattern in the imperfect?
For example,
present active indicative ἐρωτάω
ἐρωτῶ
ἐρωτᾷς
ἐρωτᾷ
ἐρωτῶμεν
ἐρωτᾶτε
ἐρωτῶσι
but the imperfect is:
ἠρώτων
ἠρώτας
ἠρώτα
ἠρωτῶμεν
ἠρωτᾶτε
ἠρώτων
If it is a pattern in the imperfect (looks to be so from what I've looked up), does the following rule apply?
in imperfect present active contract verbs, the accent immediately precedes the contract syllable in all forms except the first and second-person plural (where normal contract rules are followed).
Thus: ἠρώτων, ἠρώτας, ἠρώτα, ἠρωτῶμεν, ἠρωτᾶτε, ἠρώτων (s.v. from ἐρωτάω)
Note: the irregular forms still have a contracted syllable, even while they do not accentuate it.
Would love some help/feedback; what's going on in the imperfect??
Nathan