Abbott-Smith note on γινώσκω vs οἶδα

Semantic Range, Lexicography, and other approaches to word meaning - in general, or for particular words.
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Jonathan Robie
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Abbott-Smith note on γινώσκω vs οἶδα

Post by Jonathan Robie » June 5th, 2016, 6:52 am

How accurate do you think this note is?
Abbott-Smith wrote:γινώσκω, to know by observation and experience is thus prop. distinguished from οἶδα, to know by reflection (a mental process, based on intuition or information)
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ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/

cwconrad
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Re: Abbott-Smith note on γινώσκω vs οἶδα

Post by cwconrad » June 5th, 2016, 7:53 am

Jonathan Robie wrote:How accurate do you think this note is?
Abbott-Smith wrote:γινώσκω, to know by observation and experience is thus prop. distinguished from οἶδα, to know by reflection (a mental process, based on intuition or information)
I've often thought that the clearest distinction between ἰδεῖν/εἰδέναι and γι(γ)νώσκειν/γνῶναι is in line 3 of the proem of the Odyssey
πολλῶν δʼ ἀνθρώπων ἴδεν ἄστεα καὶ νόον ἔγνω.
Sight-seeing is the work of a tourist, learning the mind of a human being requires the mind of a connoisseur.

On the other hand, I've seen more than one passage where the distinction between ἰδεῖν/εἰδέναι and γι(γ)νώσκειν/γνῶναι is not so clear-cut, after all. Many of us (not all, of course) agree that there's an overlap of meaning between ἀγαπᾶν and φιλεῖν -- even -- or especially -- in John 21 in the celebrated dialogue of Jesus with Peter. Perhaps it is only if and when we do lexicography in the abstract that word-meanings are "crystal-clear." Sometime "usage" seems to be "confusage."
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οὔτοι ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς πάντα θεοὶ θνητοῖς ὑπέδειξαν,
ἀλλὰ χρόνῳ ζητέοντες ἐφευρίσκουσιν ἄμεινον. (Xenophanes, Fragment 16)

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)

Jean
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Re: Abbott-Smith note on γινώσκω vs οἶδα

Post by Jean » October 11th, 2018, 2:44 am

Hello all,

Reading 1 Kor 2:11 I stumbled over the question οιδεν / εγνωκεν.

Searching the internet pointed me to this thread (and to http://adayofsmallthings.com/ginosko-and-oida/ ).

I wonder, if the people in the centuries of the Early Christianity still made this distinction.

I've found 45 quotations of 1 KOR 2:11 in my (very raw) database of Migne PG: 25 of them have οιδεν, 20 have εγνωκεν (or some other form of γινωσκω, paraphrasing the Paulus-Text made that sometimes necessary).

So probably this distinction wasn't made in those times any more.

Regards
Jean Putmans
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Jean Putmans
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Jacob Rhoden
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Re: Abbott-Smith note on γινώσκω vs οἶδα

Post by Jacob Rhoden » November 5th, 2018, 7:13 am

Jonathan Robie wrote:
June 5th, 2016, 6:52 am
How accurate do you think this note is?
Abbott-Smith wrote:γινώσκω, to know by observation and experience is thus prop. distinguished from οἶδα, to know by reflection (a mental process, based on intuition or information)
I seem to recall that Porter (1989) suggested that some believe the distinction doesn't carry into the time of the New Testament. I've not done a systematic study. I am not sure the distinction is clear in at least some instances in the New Testament. It would lead to some interesting exegesis though, i.e.:
John 8:55 καὶ οὐκ ἐγνώκατε αὐτόν, ἐγὼ δὲ οἶδα αὐτόν. κἂν εἴπω ὅτι οὐκ οἶδα αὐτόν, ἔσομαι ὅμοιος ὑμῖν ψεύστης· ἀλλὰ οἶδα αὐτὸν καὶ τὸν λόγον αὐτοῦ τηρῶ.
Does John intend to suggest that the Pharisee's have not literally seen or experienced the Father. But Jesus knows based on intuition the father.

I do think that Porter is right to engage in the discussion of the distinction here, as his verbal model predicts other reasons that John may have chosen γινώσκω over οἶδα.
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