The form κέκραγεν
Posted: May 1st, 2013, 8:21 am
2.
Well, I've got an article on Johannine connectors from 1992 that might help, Linguistics and NT Interpretation, ed. D. A. Black, "OYN, DE, KAI, and Asyndeton in John's Gospel" 144-161. Also an article in the Levinson festschrift, edited S. Runge, from 2011 "Evaluating Luke's Unnatural Greek: A Look at His Connectives" 335-370.
As an anecdotal example: a few days ago I was looking at John and saw Ἰωάνης μαρτυρεῖ περὶ αὐτοῦ καὶ κέκραγεν λέγων. This correctly gets the Greek idiom with ΚΕΚRAΓΕΝΑΙ in the perfect along with the present MARTYREI. Look at the LXX where the perfect is used for "present" contexts, so much so that crazy forms are found, like an "imperfect" ἐκέκραγον Isa 1.3 καὶ ἐκέκραγον ἕτερος πρὸς τὸν ἕτερον. So who among NT writers reflects this idiomatic Greek perfect? John, -- at 1.15. Yea, John, Go, John, go!
As for Luke, his gospel style is up and down, schizophrenic. Surely you've noticed the switch from Luke 1.1-4 to the rest of Luke 1. Luke best represents Hellenistic prose in Acts 16-28. Even in Acts 22, where he portrays a Hebrew speech of Paul, he uses an impersonal ἐγένετο ... αὐτὸν ποιῆσαι Greek structure (like Greek "συνέβη ... αὐτὸν ποιῆσαι") a structure that is NEVER found in the LXX. That Greek (non-Hebraic) structure is the only one found in Acts, while in the gospel it is mixed with about thirty examples of the impersonal Hebraic "ἐγένετο ... (καὶ) ἐποίησε". But in Acts, the impersonal Hebraic structure is never found, contra erroneous statements by Dalman, Turner, et al, and expectations of commentators.
However, this discussion is now dealing with data that should be outside of a beginners forum.
Well, I've got an article on Johannine connectors from 1992 that might help, Linguistics and NT Interpretation, ed. D. A. Black, "OYN, DE, KAI, and Asyndeton in John's Gospel" 144-161. Also an article in the Levinson festschrift, edited S. Runge, from 2011 "Evaluating Luke's Unnatural Greek: A Look at His Connectives" 335-370.
As an anecdotal example: a few days ago I was looking at John and saw Ἰωάνης μαρτυρεῖ περὶ αὐτοῦ καὶ κέκραγεν λέγων. This correctly gets the Greek idiom with ΚΕΚRAΓΕΝΑΙ in the perfect along with the present MARTYREI. Look at the LXX where the perfect is used for "present" contexts, so much so that crazy forms are found, like an "imperfect" ἐκέκραγον Isa 1.3 καὶ ἐκέκραγον ἕτερος πρὸς τὸν ἕτερον. So who among NT writers reflects this idiomatic Greek perfect? John, -- at 1.15. Yea, John, Go, John, go!
As for Luke, his gospel style is up and down, schizophrenic. Surely you've noticed the switch from Luke 1.1-4 to the rest of Luke 1. Luke best represents Hellenistic prose in Acts 16-28. Even in Acts 22, where he portrays a Hebrew speech of Paul, he uses an impersonal ἐγένετο ... αὐτὸν ποιῆσαι Greek structure (like Greek "συνέβη ... αὐτὸν ποιῆσαι") a structure that is NEVER found in the LXX. That Greek (non-Hebraic) structure is the only one found in Acts, while in the gospel it is mixed with about thirty examples of the impersonal Hebraic "ἐγένετο ... (καὶ) ἐποίησε". But in Acts, the impersonal Hebraic structure is never found, contra erroneous statements by Dalman, Turner, et al, and expectations of commentators.
However, this discussion is now dealing with data that should be outside of a beginners forum.