Is Luke using ὑποχωρεῖν (instead of the usual ἀναχωρεῖν) here (and at Luke 5:16) because he personally takes the range of meaning of ἀναχωρέω in a much more narrow sense (of "to move off to the side") than others do (using ὑποχωρεῖν for the specific narrow meaning of "to get away from others (??for a while?? / ??without the intention of going somewhere else specifically")")? Or is it vaguely better Greek? Or is it a question of the formality of his Greek? (His own personal style, good Greek or register?) Or is it some other reason?Luke 9:10 wrote:Καὶ ὑποστρέψαντες οἱ ἀπόστολοι διηγήσαντο αὐτῷ ὅσα ἐποίησαν. Καὶ παραλαβὼν αὐτούς, ὑπεχώρησεν κατ’ ἰδίαν εἰς τόπον ἔρημον πόλεως καλουμένης Βηθσαϊδάν.
Generally speaking, Luke seems to pay greater attention to synonymy (evident knowledge of a greater range of vocabulary). Another example of this is his using ἐκχωρεῖν where it is most appropriate in reference to ἐν μέσῳ (+gen.) and in contradistinction to εἰσ-
. As far as other similar words are concerned, leaving another person's company (apparently on bad terms) is expressed by ἀποχωρεῖν (+gen. of a person). The general word for describe the fact of leaving a place, without making any specific comments on when?, why?, on what terms? etc. seems to be πορεύεσθαι. Luke uses that as well.Luke 21:21 wrote:Τότε οἱ ἐν τῇ Ἰουδαίᾳ φευγέτωσαν εἰς τὰ ὄρη· καὶ οἱ ἐν μέσῳ αὐτῆς ἐκχωρείτωσαν· καὶ οἱ ἐν ταῖς χώραις μὴ εἰσερχέσθωσαν εἰς αὐτήν.
[Equally as interesting is the consideration of the various nuances of the words for "to return".]