Abbott-Smith note on γινώσκω vs οἶδα

Semantic Range, Lexicography, and other approaches to word meaning - in general, or for particular words.
Stephen Carlson
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Location: Melbourne

Re: Abbott-Smith note on γινώσκω vs οἶδα

Post by Stephen Carlson » May 8th, 2019, 3:30 am

Barry Hofstetter wrote:
May 7th, 2019, 10:22 am
No, not really. οἶδα simply has the same range of meaning, or close to it, as our English "know." It's used frequently and commonly in Greek in this sense, and it's normally used as a present tense despite it's o-grade perfect stem (Yes, Stephen, if you are reading this, although my earlier discussion on this I was more interested in historical development than synchronic usage).
What's the earlier discussion?
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Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia

Jason Hare
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Joined: June 2nd, 2011, 5:28 pm
Location: Tel Aviv, Israel

Re: Abbott-Smith note on γινώσκω vs οἶδα

Post by Jason Hare » May 13th, 2019, 11:05 pm

anuswara wrote:
May 7th, 2019, 12:59 pm
But a "inherently" verb does not exist.
Only the verb + contest are existing ;)

What said Emile Benveniste about this verb?
Two things from this post don’t quite make sense to me. Can you tell us what “a[n] ‘inherently’ verb” means? Also, what is “verb + contest”? Do you mean to say “context”?

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Jason A. Hare
Tel Aviv, Israel

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Re: Abbott-Smith note on γινώσκω vs οἶδα

Post by anuswara » May 14th, 2019, 7:37 am

You should ask this to Barry Hofstetter.
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