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Re: Abbott-Smith note on γινώσκω vs οἶδα

Posted: May 8th, 2019, 3:30 am
by Stephen Carlson
Barry Hofstetter wrote:
May 7th, 2019, 10:22 am
No, not really. οἶδα simply has the same range of meaning, or close to it, as our English "know." It's used frequently and commonly in Greek in this sense, and it's normally used as a present tense despite it's o-grade perfect stem (Yes, Stephen, if you are reading this, although my earlier discussion on this I was more interested in historical development than synchronic usage).
What's the earlier discussion?

Re: Abbott-Smith note on γινώσκω vs οἶδα

Posted: May 13th, 2019, 11:05 pm
by Jason Hare
anuswara wrote:
May 7th, 2019, 12:59 pm
But a "inherently" verb does not exist.
Only the verb + contest are existing ;)

What said Emile Benveniste about this verb?
Two things from this post don’t quite make sense to me. Can you tell us what “a[n] ‘inherently’ verb” means? Also, what is “verb + contest”? Do you mean to say “context”?

Thanks!

Re: Abbott-Smith note on γινώσκω vs οἶδα

Posted: May 14th, 2019, 7:37 am
by anuswara
You should ask this to Barry Hofstetter.