Morphology of οἶδα
Posted: October 15th, 2015, 12:03 pm
Why does the stem of οἶδα change from οιδ in the perfect indicative to ειδ in the perfect subjunctive?
It's actually more complicated than that. The root of this verb has the so-called Ablaut or "Vowel gradation" of the e/o/- variety; for the Greek verb it is ϝειδ/ϝοιδ/ϝιδ, In the older Homeric and Classical verb the singular of the perfect active takes the ϝοιδ form: οἶδα, οἶδας, οἶδε, while the plural takes the ϝιδ- form: ἴδμεν or ἴσμεν, ἴστε, ἰσᾶσι. In the later Koine the ϝοιδ/οιδ form has become standard for both singular and plural. Yes, it's the e- form in the participle εἰδώς and infinitive εῖδέναι (in the rare pluperfect also). This is the same as the old English verb seen in the older forms of the KJV, "I wis" and "wist ye not ... ?"David M. Miller wrote:Why does the stem of οἶδα change from οιδ in the perfect indicative to ειδ in the perfect subjunctive?
Most beginning texts will have it. Additionally: