Pronunciation of Consecutive Identical Vowel Sounds
Posted: February 26th, 2012, 3:10 am
I've been practicing Buth's pronunciation for a few months now and find it both fun and more realistic than the Erasmian I was taught. However, I feel that Buth hasn't dealt with instances where a word that ends with a vowel is followed by a word that begins with the same vowel or same vowel sound. Some examples:
*1 John 1:5: "Καὶ ἔστιν αὕτη ἡ ἀγγελία . . . "
*1 John 1:6: ". . . αὐτοῦ καὶ ἐν τῷ σκότει . . ."
*1 John 1:7: " ἐὰν δὲ ἐν τῷ . . ."
*1 John 1:9: " . . . καὶ δίκαιος ἵνα ἀφῇ ἡμῖν . . ."
*1 Jogn 1:9 again (the next word): " . . . ἵνα ἀφῇ ἡμῖν τὰς . . ."
I ask because I find that when you try to just go on and pronounce in the most natural way that it sounds like you are slurring your speech because of drinking too much alcohol. Take 1 John 1:5 for example: "ke esteen awftayyyy awngeleeaw"
Or 1 John 1:9: "eenawwwwwwftayyyyyyymeen."
It sounds too sloppy.
According to Modern Greek pronunciation, many words that are constructed this way omit the final vowel of the first word, so as to create "elision" in its pronunciation to create a smoother sound. For example: "θα ἀγοράσω" is actually pronounced as "θ' ἀγοράσω".
In addition, Modern Greek also elides vowels in this manner even when the two linking vowels are different. For example: "το εἰπα" is pronounced as "τ' πα".
More examples can be found at 5:13ff from the video: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0MrhfXWc ... plpp_video
But we are only taught that elision occurs like this for prepositions that end with a vowel when they are followed by a word that begins with a vowel. I'm wondering if elision in pronunciation occurred like this in Koine Greek as well.
*1 John 1:5: "Καὶ ἔστιν αὕτη ἡ ἀγγελία . . . "
*1 John 1:6: ". . . αὐτοῦ καὶ ἐν τῷ σκότει . . ."
*1 John 1:7: " ἐὰν δὲ ἐν τῷ . . ."
*1 John 1:9: " . . . καὶ δίκαιος ἵνα ἀφῇ ἡμῖν . . ."
*1 Jogn 1:9 again (the next word): " . . . ἵνα ἀφῇ ἡμῖν τὰς . . ."
I ask because I find that when you try to just go on and pronounce in the most natural way that it sounds like you are slurring your speech because of drinking too much alcohol. Take 1 John 1:5 for example: "ke esteen awftayyyy awngeleeaw"
Or 1 John 1:9: "eenawwwwwwftayyyyyyymeen."
It sounds too sloppy.
According to Modern Greek pronunciation, many words that are constructed this way omit the final vowel of the first word, so as to create "elision" in its pronunciation to create a smoother sound. For example: "θα ἀγοράσω" is actually pronounced as "θ' ἀγοράσω".
In addition, Modern Greek also elides vowels in this manner even when the two linking vowels are different. For example: "το εἰπα" is pronounced as "τ' πα".
More examples can be found at 5:13ff from the video: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0MrhfXWc ... plpp_video
But we are only taught that elision occurs like this for prepositions that end with a vowel when they are followed by a word that begins with a vowel. I'm wondering if elision in pronunciation occurred like this in Koine Greek as well.