How does Smyth's grammar compare to Goodwin's?

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Stephen Hughes
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How does Smyth's grammar compare to Goodwin's?

Post by Stephen Hughes » April 17th, 2015, 9:46 am

More delvings into the 19th and early 20th century . . .

Smyth succeeded Goodwin at Harvard.

What are the general differences between the grammars of the two?

Am I right in assuming that there was no lineage from Hadley and Allen's to Goodwin's grammar?
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Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)

cwconrad
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Re: How does Smyth's grammar compare to Goodwin's?

Post by cwconrad » April 17th, 2015, 10:13 am

Stephen Hughes wrote:More delvings into the 19th and early 20th century . . .

Smyth succeeded Goodwin at Harvard.

What are the general differences between the grammars of the two?

Am I right in assuming that there was no lineage from Hadley and Allen's to Goodwin's grammar?
I think that Mike Aubrey has probably done more careful study of the history of Greek grammatical reference works, so he may have something more useful to say on the subject. I shall offer no more than a couple more-or-less "obvious" comments:
(1) Smyth's exposition of phonology, morphology, syntax, principles of word-formation, and concise listing of major Greek verbs may not present the "last word" to be said on any particular matter of Greek grammar, but for English-speaking readers there is really no substitute;
(2) One extraordinary virtue of Smyth's grammatical expositions is that his versions of Greek constructions are almost always both idiomatic English and helpful in clarifying the point of usage under discussion.
I might add what should also be obvious to anyone who has consulted Smyth: the focus is on Classical Attic; while it is helpful with Homer and with Biblical Koine, it will not suffice as the sole reference grammar in those areas.
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οὔτοι ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς πάντα θεοὶ θνητοῖς ὑπέδειξαν,
ἀλλὰ χρόνῳ ζητέοντες ἐφευρίσκουσιν ἄμεινον. (Xenophanes, Fragment 16)

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)

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