Is it usual / acceptable / (even) expected to mix /confuse / not know (or mind) the difference between monotonic άέήίόύώ and polytonic άέήίόύώ?
To give two recent examples, the ocr output for the Abbott-Smith lexicon was a mixture of the 24 unaccented letters, vowels with monotonic acutes and letters with polytonic every other type of diacritic. The Isaiah LXX word list (.pdf) that this post links to
is the same mixture.
Is that an inaccuracy that people usually live with? In most fonts they look the same. Are there advantages for sorting in mixing (or avoiding mixing) the systems? So far as I can ascertain, the Multikey IME is pure polytonic - how do the monotonic acutes come into play - they are for Modern Greek, not Ancient.
Ὃς μὲν κρίνει ἡμέραν παρ’ ἡμέραν, ὃς δὲ κρίνει πᾶσαν ἡμέραν. Ἕκαστος ἐν τῷ ἰδίῳ νοῒ πληροφορείσθω. (Romans 14:5)