Posted: April 18th, 2013, 4:16 pm
I have been working my way through the gospels by trying to translate the passage indicated by the common lectionary each week. Sometimes I puzzle over a particular construction all week long, and then all of a sudden, when I find an explanation some where, it becomes clear and I wonder how I missed it. This week my conundrum is in John, ch 10, vs 28: καὶ οὐχ ἁρπάσει τις αὐτὰ ἐκ τῆς χειρός μου. I am wondering why there is a singular verb and to whom it is refering ... who is doing the snatching.