Stephen Carlson wrote:I think this whole line of inquiry and answer is confusing. Finite verbs don't have gender in Greek.
Finite verbs don't show (have) gender in their forms, but they do have gender in their meaning.
The genders are not indicated in the form of the verb, but if you ask the question, "Does the internal pronoun of xxx verb refer a a masculine, feminine or neuter subject?" would return one of the three (or four) available for this langauge, and then we could ask, "Which of the various uses of that one of those three genders is it being used to mean?"
The answer that I gave at least was refering to the meaning of βούλεται rather than to its form. The form βούλεται doesn't show gender, but gender is part of its meaning.
I wish to preach... that highest form of success which comes, not to the man who desires mere easy peace, but to the man who does not shrink from danger, from hardship, or from bitter toil, and who out of these wins the splendid ultimate triumph.(TR-1899)