Re: βούλεται in 1 Cor. 12:11?
Posted: February 14th, 2014, 11:48 am
I think this whole line of inquiry and answer is confusing. Finite verbs don't have gender in Greek.
ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/
https://www.ibiblio.org:443/bgreek/forum/
https://www.ibiblio.org:443/bgreek/forum/viewtopic.php?f=40&t=2322
Finite verbs don't show (have) gender in their forms, but they do have gender in their meaning.Stephen Carlson wrote:I think this whole line of inquiry and answer is confusing. Finite verbs don't have gender in Greek.
Agreed. It can only determined by context (contextus semper rex). For years I graded for a course which included a Greek exam with readings from Acts and Paul. I would occasionally have a student who had had Hebrew more recently than Greek and would parse a verb as a third masculine singular... and yes, I would take off for it and usually write a comment to remind the student which language he was reading. Almost as interesting as the students (at the seminary level, mind you) who would write "cannon" for "canon." For them I would write a big "BOOM" next to the circled word (for which I didn't subtract points). I never had a student make that mistake again after that...Stephen Carlson wrote:I disagree. I find this approach thoroughly unhelpful and probably confusing to beginners. The third person singular ending does not specify gender, just as it does not specify the color, height, crankiness, or any other potential attribute of the subject.