I went to a NT Greek class at the local Greek Orthodox church, which was taught by a native Greek priest, and he surprised me when he said "Greek, unlike Hebrew, is not a dead language...it never died".
Jordan Day wrote:I haven't spent much time with Homer, but I hear he is different. Some grammarians like Wallace seem to lump him in with "Classical" (pg.14 GGBB). Others distinguish between "Homeric Greek" and "Classical Greek". But I think I have read somewhere on this forum that Josephus would likely have not made a distinction between "Classical Greek" and his own language. Would he have distinguished "Homeric Greek" from his own language? or would he think it was simply a different dialect? At what point does a dialect become a "different language"? Using "The Canterbury Tales" (middle English) as a comparison, is it more different? Obviously I can see some of the differences because I have a decent grasp on NT Greek, but I guess I need to hear from someone that has a firm grasp on BOTH.
Jordan Day wrote:What about Modern Greek? What time period did the radical shift take place that made it a "different language"?
no ancient dialects of Greek possessed Balkanisms, so that the features shared with other regional languages appear to be post-classical innovations. Also, Greek appears to be only peripheral to the Balkan language area, lacking some important features, such as the postposed article. Nevertheless, several of the features that Greek does share with the other languages (loss of dative, replacement of infinitive by subjunctive constructions, object clitics, formation of future with auxiliary verb "to want") probably originated in Medieval Greek and spread to the other languages through Byzantine influence.
The analytic perfect with the auxiliary verb "to have" (which some Balkan languages share with Western European languages), is the only feature whose origin can fairly safely be traced to Latin.
A common case system of a Balkan language is:
- Dative / Genitive (merged)
The future tense is formed in an analytic way using an auxiliary verb or particle with the meaning "will, want", referred to as de-volitive, similar to the way the future is formed in English. This feature is present to varying degrees in each language [within the Balkan Sprachbund].
The analytic perfect tense is formed in the Balkan languages with the verb "to have" and, usually, a past passive participle, similarly to the construction found in Germanic and other Romance languages
The replacement of synthetic adjectival comparative forms with analytic ones by means of preposed markers is common. ... Modern Greek: πιο (pió)
Stephen Hawking, A Brief History of Time wrote:The increase of disorder or entropy is what distinguishes the past from the future, giving a direction to time.
RandallButh wrote:Jordan Day wrote:I went to a NT Greek class at the local Greek Orthodox church, which was taught by a native Greek priest,
He should have remembered the work that he went through in secondary school to read the classical authors and to learn classical morphology.
They couldn't sense of it.Μακάριοι οἱ καθαροὶ τῇ καρδίᾳ· ὅτι αὐτοὶ τὸν θεὸν ὄψονται.
Matthew 5:8 in Koine Greek, misunderstood from Modern Greek grammar wrote:Μακάριοι οἱ καθαροὶ τῇ καρδίᾳ· ὅτι αὐτοὶ τὸν θεὸν ὄψονται.
Macariuses the clean (will do something to) the(ir) heart, when they are going to see what sort of punishment they will get from God himself for the evil things they have done.
Stephen Hughes wrote:The phrase να όψεται or ας όψεται means something like "Just wait and see how God is going to show him what evil he's done and what punishment he's going to get".
from which the idiom derives, was taken to mean that Pilate was referrng to the future judgement seat of God, rather than to the present trial that he was presiding over.Matthew 27:24 wrote:ἰδὼν δὲ ὁ Πιλᾶτος ὅτι οὐδὲν ὠφελεῖ, ἀλλὰ μᾶλλον θόρυβος γίνεται, λαβὼν ὕδωρ ἀπενίψατο τὰς χεῖρας ἀπέναντι τοῦ ὄχλου, λέγων· Ἀθῷός εἰμι ἀπὸ τοῦ αἵματος τοῦ δικαίου τούτου· ὑμεῖς ὄψεσθε.
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cwconrad wrote:This is a beginner's question, but I am not sure that a beginner in Greek can be given a very useful answer to the question.
Jordan Day wrote: I am still very disappointed in my abilities after these 6+ years of studying.
Steven Hughes wrote:What were you expectations 6 years ago in studying Greek and your failings now that leave you with the feelng of disappointment?
One detail from the biography of the American Expat and writer Paul Bowes is that his mother read Nathaniel Ha(w)thorne and Edgar Allan Poe to him at the age of four. They were definitely not children's story books. You can't adjust the text. the text is the bar. There is not much that we as readers can do about that.Jordan Day wrote:Perhaps I set the bar too high...
And let's see what freedom we can have in the language here.Acts 19:4 wrote:Εἶπεν δὲ Παῦλος, Ἰωάννης μὲν ἐβάπτισεν βάπτισμα μετανοίας, τῷ λαῷ λέγων εἰς τὸν ἐρχόμενον μετ’ αὐτὸν ἵνα πιστεύσωσιν, τοῦτ’ ἔστιν, εἰς τὸν χριστὸν Ἰησοῦν.
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