"ὑμῖν" in Ephesians 4:4-6

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Jacob Rhoden
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"ὑμῖν" in Ephesians 4:4-6

Post by Jacob Rhoden » April 13th, 2015, 8:34 pm

I was looking at this verse in the context of learning the word "one". In the process of reading it (as a beginner), I notice the ending phrase, contains "you". In seeing the "you" it kind of hits me more than the English, perhaps because I see "and in all" as quite a very generic statement, whereas when I see the "you" it seems to make it personal.
ἓν σῶμα καὶ ἓν Πνεῦμα, καθὼς καὶ ἐκλήθητε ἐν μιᾷ ἐλπίδι τῆς κλήσεως ὑμῶν· εἷς Κύριος, μία πίστις, ἓν βάπτισμα, εἷς Θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ πάντων, ὁ ἐπὶ πάντων, καὶ διὰ πάντων, καὶ ἐν πᾶσιν ὑμῖν.
There is one body and one Spirit, just as also you were called in one bhope of your calling; one Lord, one faith, one baptism, one God and Father of all who is over all and through all and in all.
Is it t makes me wonder if there is a reason the "you" sense does not pass through into the English? Or am I misunderstanding something (i.e. Is the "you" just left out to make the English easier to read, or am I misunderstanding how "you" is used here?)
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Stephen Carlson
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Re: "ὑμῖν" in Ephesians 4:4-6

Post by Stephen Carlson » April 13th, 2015, 9:52 pm

What text are you citing? ὑμῖν is not in the Nestle-Aland critical text at all, and the Byzantine has ἡμῖν instead.
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Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia

Jacob Rhoden
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Joined: February 15th, 2013, 8:16 am
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Re: "ὑμῖν" in Ephesians 4:4-6

Post by Jacob Rhoden » April 14th, 2015, 1:45 am

It's a straight copy/paste from accordance's default "GNT-Textus Receptus with Strong's". I didn't think to check KJV, KJV actually does add the you (assumedly due to being based of the Textus Receptus):
There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; 5 One Lord, one faith, one baptism, 6 One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.
This is not the first time I've come across a translational question which was to do with a variant between the Textus Receptus and a more modern text. (I've gone ahead and ordered the GNT28 for accordance, but there is some hold on the order, for some reason orders from them seem to take a day to go through.)

It seems to make sense to me now, if it was ὑμῖν then you would include the "you", but then of course if there is removed.
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Stephen Carlson
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Re: "ὑμῖν" in Ephesians 4:4-6

Post by Stephen Carlson » April 14th, 2015, 2:38 am

While you're waiting for your order to go through, you can read the NA28 online here: http://www.nestle-aland.com/en/read-na28-online/
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Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia

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