What often happens with beginning students is that they learn a few correct facts about the language, but then tend to apply them incorrectly apart from the the broader context of the language. One often sees non-students of the language doing this sort of thing, especially when they have a theological point to prove.
Fair statement - but I don't think I have a theological point I'm trying to prove.
What I am interested in is correctly understanding the Greek verbs, their tenses, moods, voices etc, including the participle, with the aim of understanding clearly the precise flavor and meaning that the writer may have intended the reader to see.
Yes, I also look at the context with the aim of understanding the subject, obviously at a higher level than the Greek grammar, with the aim of trying to understand what the writer may have done at the grammar level to make his subject point more clear.
I'm not interested in making any invalid use of the Greek - only in making proper use of it. But to do that, I have to understand how the grammar works, and that's why I'm here, because I respect the knowledge and expertise found here.
I'd rather not delve into the subject of my personal religious beliefs, since that's not relevant to my aim - to properly understand the Greek language and grammar. I feel no impetus whatever to try to convince anyone here along the lines of doctrine - this isn't the forum for that.
After considering more carefully the posts here, last evening I wondered if it would be valid, from the standpoint of the Greek, to render Rev. 14:1, in part, as:
"I saw, and behold, a Lamb stood up, standing on the Mount Zion....."
Please understand - I'm not trying to re-translate the verse in an effort to do a better job of it than has already been done. What I'm trying to do is to understand fully the perfect tense, which has two aspects, the action was performed, and its effects continue to the present. It helps me to work such things out with a concrete example.
So in the example above, the English conveys both aspects - (1) the Lamb stood up, and (2) the fact that the effect continues, in that he is standing.
Would I be correct in this assessment? Would such a rendering violate anything in the Greek? When John used the perfect tense for "stand up", does that mean that he witnessed the Lamb stand up, or, did he only witness the Lamb "standing" - that is, after the action was completed? Is there any way to know this?
What I am driving at here is, what is the precise reason (if any?) that the writer chose to use the perfect tense? I really want to understand the reason(s) for that choice, if we can discover it.
William J. Stroupe
"God's Word is alive and exerts power..." Hebrews 4:12