Ezekiel 3:2a

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Tim Evans
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Joined: July 10th, 2015, 1:40 am

Ezekiel 3:2a

Post by Tim Evans »

How would you translate this?
καὶ διήνοιξεν τὸ στόμα μου, ...
NETS translates it:
And I opened wide my mouth, ...
Perhaps I am reading too late at night to concentrate but I read it as
And my mouth opened, ...
Where does the I come from? It's there in the Hebrew but I can't work out where it comes from in the Greek, is this just English gloss? (It seems exegetically relevant to the question of is the author experiencing the event or seeing it in a vision.)
Stirling Bartholomew
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Re: Ezekiel 3:2a

Post by Stirling Bartholomew »

Where did you get that text?

NETS works from a critical text which I don't have access to.

Ezek. 3:2 καὶ διήνοιξα τὸ στόμα μου, καὶ ἐψώμισέν με τὴν κεφαλίδα. [1]

Is. 5:14 καὶ ἐπλάτυνεν ὁ ᾅδης τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ καὶ διήνοιξεν τὸ στόμα αὐτοῦ τοῦ μὴ διαλιπεῖν, καὶ καταβήσονται οἱ ἔνδοξοι καὶ οἱ μεγάλοι καὶ οἱ πλούσιοι καὶ οἱ λοιμοὶ αὐτῆς.

[1]Greek Septuagint

Kraft/Taylor/Wheeler Septuagint Morphology Database v. 4.5
Copyright © 2010, Bernard A. Taylor and Dale M. Wheeler. All rights reserved.

Septuaginta, edited by Alfred Rahlfs
Editio altera by Robert Hanhart
©2006 Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft, Stuttgart.
C. Stirling Bartholomew
MAubrey
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Re: Ezekiel 3:2a

Post by MAubrey »

Gottingen reads the same as Rahlfs: καὶ διήνοιξα τὸ στόμα μου

Presumably, the text the OP is using is from the diplomatic text of Swete: καὶ διήνοιξεν τὸ στόμα μου
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Tim Evans
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Re: Ezekiel 3:2a

Post by Tim Evans »

That's correct. I somehow have lots of modules in Accordance called LXX-something.... but I don't know the history of them and didn't realize there was a difference (in the Greek).

Why is this version different to the others?
Shirley Rollinson
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Re: Ezekiel 3:2a

Post by Shirley Rollinson »

Tim Evans wrote: July 21st, 2017, 10:26 am How would you translate this?
καὶ διήνοιξεν τὸ στόμα μου, ...
NETS translates it:
And I opened wide my mouth, ...
Perhaps I am reading too late at night to concentrate but I read it as
And my mouth opened, ...
Where does the I come from? It's there in the Hebrew but I can't work out where it comes from in the Greek, is this just English gloss? (It seems exegetically relevant to the question of is the author experiencing the event or seeing it in a vision.)
should it not be "He/she/it opened my mouth" ? (ie the one speaking to me, and causing me to eat, is also the one opening my mouth)
S Walch
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Re: Ezekiel 3:2a

Post by S Walch »

Yes, it's definitely 'he opened' (διήνοιξεν being 3rd person, singular).
That's correct. I somehow have lots of modules in Accordance called LXX-something.... but I don't know the history of them and didn't realize there was a difference (in the Greek).
Think most of Accordance's (and Logos') LXX modules are based of Swete's LXX.

Unless of course it specifies as being from Rahlfs - https://www.logos.com/product/7080/sept ... morphology

Interestingly, in Swete's apparatus, he doesn't list διήνοιξα as a variant reading in Ezek 3:2.
Why is this version different to the others?
Swete uses Codex Vaticanus (IIRC) as his main text, and so is just reproducing a transcription of that in his LXX version (with missing sections provided by Codex Alexandrinus).

NETS as been noted, is based on the full Gottenburg critical edition.
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