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Placement of the definite article
Posted: April 5th, 2019, 11:44 am
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How is the meaning of a phrase affected by the placement of the definite article:
ἐν ταῖς ἐσχάταις ἡμέραις Acts 2:17 [in the last days]
ἐπ' ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν 2 Peter 3:3 [in last the days]
Re: Placement of the definite article
Posted: April 6th, 2019, 3:29 pm
It essentially means the same thing, however the expression in 2 Pet 3:3 is probably due to Semitic (Septuagintal) influence:
ἐπʼ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν. Temporal. The ἐσχάτων is an anarthrous substantival adjective (BDF §264.5). While some later manuscripts (e.g., 𝔪) have the singular ἐσχάτου, all earlier manuscripts have the plural form, either by attraction to the plural ἡμερῶν or because they think of τὰ ἔσχατα (as in Barn. 16.5 and Hermas, Sim. 9.12.13). This use of ἐσχάτων with the genitive τῶν ἡμερῶν is Semitic (BDF §234.8).
Davids, P. H. (2011). 2 Peter and Jude: A Handbook on the Greek Text (pp. 94–95). Waco, TX: Baylor University Press.
ἐπʼ ἐσχάτου [τοῦ] χρόνου. Temporal (see BDF §234.8). The anarthrous ἐσχάτου is substantival (BDF §264.5), the whole expression ἐπʼ ἐσχάτου [τοῦ] χρόνου being one of various ways the LXX has for rendering the Hebrew phrase meaning “in the afterward of days.” Various attempts were made in the manuscript tradition to regularize this expression (the NA/UBS text is found in א A 33 pc) including: ἐν ἐσχάτῳ χρόνῳ (𝔓72vid𝔪) and ἐπʼ ἐσχάτου χρόνου (𝔓72 B C pc).
Davids, P. H. (2011). 2 Peter and Jude: A Handbook on the Greek Text (p. 30). Waco, TX: Baylor University Press.