Hello everyone. This is my first post (other than to introduce myself).
I am interested to hear thoughts about the use of the second τοῦ in this phrase given that other references in Matthew to the Holy Spirit (Matt 1:18, 1:20, 3:11, 28:19) omit it.
Could it be possible that the inclusion of the second τοῦ suggests that Jesus could have meant blasphemy of things that are holy or spiritual rather than, as it is translated, the Holy Spirit? Thanks.
Matthew 12:32 τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου,
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Re: Matthew 12:32 τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου,
One thing that you'll learn on B-Greek is that we kindly request that you post the Greek text of a verb when you ask a question.
In this case:
Just as ἐκ θεοῦ or ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ can mean "from God," so either ἐκ πνεύματος ἁγίου or ἐκ τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου can mean "from the holy spirit."
The article must be repeated if: (1) the head noun is paired with an article and (2) the adjective in attributive position appears after it.
If the adjective appears before it, then there is only one article (τὸ ἅγιον πνεῦμα). If it comes after the noun, though, then it appears with the article (τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον). If the noun is anarthrous (without an article), then the adjective may appear before or after the noun with the same meaning (ἅγιον πνεῦμα or πνεῦμα ἅγιον).
In this case:
Matt. 12:32
καὶ ὃς ἐὰν εἴπῃ λόγον κατὰ τοῦ υἱοῦ τοῦ ἀνθρώπου, ἀφεθήσεται αὐτῷ· ὃς δ’ ἂν εἴπῃ κατὰ τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου, οὐκ ἀφεθήσεται αὐτῷ οὔτε ἐν [a]τούτῳ τῷ αἰῶνι οὔτε ἐν τῷ μέλλοντι.
I'll post here the other verses that you've listed:καὶ ὃς ἐὰν εἴπῃ λόγον κατὰ τοῦ υἱοῦ τοῦ ἀνθρώπου, ἀφεθήσεται αὐτῷ· ὃς δ’ ἂν εἴπῃ κατὰ τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου, οὐκ ἀφεθήσεται αὐτῷ οὔτε ἐν [a]τούτῳ τῷ αἰῶνι οὔτε ἐν τῷ μέλλοντι.
Matt. 1:18
Τοῦ δὲ Ἰησοῦ χριστοῦ ἡ γένεσις οὕτως ἦν. μνηστευθείσης τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ Μαρίας τῷ Ἰωσήφ, πρὶν ἢ συνελθεῖν αὐτοὺς εὑρέθη ἐν γαστρὶ ἔχουσα ἐκ πνεύματος ἁγίου.
Matt. 1:20
ταῦτα δὲ αὐτοῦ ἐνθυμηθέντος ἰδοὺ ἄγγελος κυρίου κατ’ ὄναρ ἐφάνη αὐτῷ λέγων· Ἰωσὴφ υἱὸς Δαυίδ, μὴ φοβηθῇς παραλαβεῖν Μαρίαν τὴν γυναῖκά σου, τὸ γὰρ ἐν αὐτῇ γεννηθὲν ἐκ πνεύματός ἐστιν ἁγίου·
Matt. 3:11
Ἐγὼ μὲν ὑμᾶς βαπτίζω ἐν ὕδατι εἰς μετάνοιαν· ὁ δὲ ὀπίσω μου ἐρχόμενος ἰσχυρότερός μού ἐστιν, οὗ οὐκ εἰμὶ ἱκανὸς τὰ ὑποδήματα βαστάσαι· αὐτὸς ὑμᾶς βαπτίσει ἐν πνεύματι ἁγίῳ καὶ πυρί·
Matt. 28:19
πορευθέντες οὖν μαθητεύσατε πάντα τὰ ἔθνη, βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ υἱοῦ καὶ τοῦ ἁγίου πνεύματος,
Three of your examples have no article at all (πνεῦμα ἅγιον), while the last is articular (τὸ ἅγιον πνεῦμα). There are two variations of the articular form: τὸ ἅγιον πνεῦμα and τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον. There is nothing magical here that has hidden meaning. It is simply an alternative form.Τοῦ δὲ Ἰησοῦ χριστοῦ ἡ γένεσις οὕτως ἦν. μνηστευθείσης τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ Μαρίας τῷ Ἰωσήφ, πρὶν ἢ συνελθεῖν αὐτοὺς εὑρέθη ἐν γαστρὶ ἔχουσα ἐκ πνεύματος ἁγίου.
Matt. 1:20
ταῦτα δὲ αὐτοῦ ἐνθυμηθέντος ἰδοὺ ἄγγελος κυρίου κατ’ ὄναρ ἐφάνη αὐτῷ λέγων· Ἰωσὴφ υἱὸς Δαυίδ, μὴ φοβηθῇς παραλαβεῖν Μαρίαν τὴν γυναῖκά σου, τὸ γὰρ ἐν αὐτῇ γεννηθὲν ἐκ πνεύματός ἐστιν ἁγίου·
Matt. 3:11
Ἐγὼ μὲν ὑμᾶς βαπτίζω ἐν ὕδατι εἰς μετάνοιαν· ὁ δὲ ὀπίσω μου ἐρχόμενος ἰσχυρότερός μού ἐστιν, οὗ οὐκ εἰμὶ ἱκανὸς τὰ ὑποδήματα βαστάσαι· αὐτὸς ὑμᾶς βαπτίσει ἐν πνεύματι ἁγίῳ καὶ πυρί·
Matt. 28:19
πορευθέντες οὖν μαθητεύσατε πάντα τὰ ἔθνη, βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ υἱοῦ καὶ τοῦ ἁγίου πνεύματος,
Just as ἐκ θεοῦ or ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ can mean "from God," so either ἐκ πνεύματος ἁγίου or ἐκ τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου can mean "from the holy spirit."
The article must be repeated if: (1) the head noun is paired with an article and (2) the adjective in attributive position appears after it.
If the adjective appears before it, then there is only one article (τὸ ἅγιον πνεῦμα). If it comes after the noun, though, then it appears with the article (τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον). If the noun is anarthrous (without an article), then the adjective may appear before or after the noun with the same meaning (ἅγιον πνεῦμα or πνεῦμα ἅγιον).
Jason A. Hare
Tel Aviv, Israel
Tel Aviv, Israel
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Re: Matthew 12:32 τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου,
Thanks for that Jason. I think I follow you. Apologies for not quoting the full text of the verse in question. I was going to do this initially and then decided to just post the section which I was querying. Thank you for looking up and posting the other verses which I mentioned. Appreciate that.
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Re: Matthew 12:32 τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου,
In other words...
ἅγιον πνεῦμα = τὸ ἅγιον πνεῦμα
πνεῦμα ἅγιον = τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον
ἅγιον πνεῦμα = πνεῦμα ἄγιον
It's all the same.
ἅγιον πνεῦμα = τὸ ἅγιον πνεῦμα
πνεῦμα ἅγιον = τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον
ἅγιον πνεῦμα = πνεῦμα ἄγιον
It's all the same.

Jason A. Hare
Tel Aviv, Israel
Tel Aviv, Israel
Re: Matthew 12:32 τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου,
What Jason said is correct regarding "το πνευμα το αγιον". However, I want to point out that the article does not make a difference here only because "πνευμα αγιον" has become a commonly known way to refer to "το πνευμα του θεου", since to them there is only one holy spirit. With typical noun phrases the article does make a difference.Sarah Howell wrote:Hello everyone. This is my first post (other than to introduce myself).
I am interested to hear thoughts about the use of the second τοῦ in this phrase given that other references in Matthew to the Holy Spirit (Matt 1:18, 1:20, 3:11, 28:19) omit it.
Could it be possible that the inclusion of the second τοῦ suggests that Jesus could have meant blasphemy of things that are holy or spiritual rather than, as it is translated, the Holy Spirit? Thanks.
δαυιδ λιμ
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Re: Matthew 12:32 τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου,
Thanks for that David
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